Nursing Elites

1. The nurse is caring for a client with a history of peptic ulcer disease. Which of these findings would be most concerning to the nurse?

• A. A heart rate of 72 beats per minute
• B. A hemoglobin level of 12 g/dL
• C. The client reports black, tarry stools
• D. The client reports nausea and vomiting

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Black, tarry stools can indicate gastrointestinal bleeding, which is a serious complication of peptic ulcer disease. This finding suggests active bleeding in the gastrointestinal tract, requiring immediate attention. A normal heart rate of 72 beats per minute (choice A) is within the expected range. A hemoglobin level of 12 g/dL (choice B) is also within normal limits. Nausea and vomiting (choice D) are common symptoms associated with peptic ulcer disease but may not necessarily indicate active bleeding like black, tarry stools.

2. A client with diabetes is being educated about the dietary source that should provide the greatest percentage of their calories. Which of the following statements by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?

• A. Most of my calories each day should be from fats.
• B. I should eat more calories from complex carbohydrates than anything else.
• C. Simple sugars are needed more than other calorie sources.
• D. Protein should be my main source of calories.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. In diabetes management, complex carbohydrates should constitute the largest portion of the diet as they help in maintaining steady energy levels and managing blood sugar. Choice A is incorrect because a high-fat diet can lead to complications in diabetes. Choice C is incorrect as simple sugars can cause rapid spikes in blood sugar levels. Choice D is incorrect as protein, while important, should not be the main source of calories for a diabetic individual.

3. After a myocardial infarction, a client is placed on a sodium-restricted diet. When the nurse is teaching the client about the diet, which meal plan would be the most appropriate?

• A. 3 oz. broiled fish, 1 baked potato, 1/2 cup canned beets, 1 orange, and milk
• B. 3 oz. canned salmon, fresh broccoli, 1 biscuit, tea, and 1 apple
• C. A bologna sandwich, fresh eggplant, 2 oz fresh fruit, tea, and apple juice
• D. 3 oz. turkey, 1 fresh sweet potato, 1/2 cup fresh green beans, milk, and 1 orange

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. A meal of turkey, sweet potato, green beans, milk, and an orange is low in sodium and suitable for a post-MI diet. Choice A includes a baked potato and canned beets, which are higher in sodium. Choice B includes canned salmon, which can be high in sodium. Choice C includes a bologna sandwich, which is also high in sodium compared to the other options.

4. A client is being maintained on heparin therapy for deep vein thrombosis. The nurse must closely monitor which of the following laboratory values?

• A. Bleeding time
• B. Platelet count
• C. Activated PTT
• D. Clotting time

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Activated PTT is the correct lab value to monitor for clients on heparin therapy. Activated PTT (partial thromboplastin time) helps assess the effectiveness of heparin therapy by measuring the time it takes for blood to clot. Monitoring activated PTT ensures that the client is within the therapeutic range of heparin to prevent both clotting and bleeding complications. Bleeding time (Choice A) and platelet count (Choice B) are not specific indicators of heparin therapy effectiveness. Clotting time (Choice D) is not as sensitive as activated PTT in monitoring heparin therapy.

5. An 86-year-old nursing home resident who has decreased mental status is hospitalized with pneumonic infiltrates in the right lower lobe. When the nurse assists the client with a clear liquid diet, the client begins to cough. What should the nurse do next?

• A. Add a thickening agent to the fluids
• B. Check the client's gag reflex
• C. Feed the client only solid foods
• D. Increase the rate of intravenous fluids

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Checking the client's gag reflex is the appropriate action in this scenario. It helps assess the client's ability to swallow safely without the risk of aspiration. Adding a thickening agent to the fluids (Choice A) may be considered later if swallowing difficulties persist. Feeding the client only solid foods (Choice C) can increase the risk of aspiration in this case, and increasing the rate of intravenous fluids (Choice D) does not address the swallowing concern.

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