HESI RN
HESI 799 RN Exit Exam
1. Following a gunshot wound to the abdomen, a young adult male had an emergency bowel resection and received multiple blood products while in the operating room. His current blood pressure is 78/52 mm Hg, he is being mechanically ventilated, and his oxygen saturation is 87%. His laboratory values include hemoglobin 7.0 g/dL, platelets 20,000/mm³, and white blood cells 1,500/mm³. Based on these assessment findings, which intervention should the nurse implement first?
- A. Transfuse packed red blood cells.
- B. Obtain blood and sputum cultures.
- C. Infuse 1000 ml of normal saline.
- D. Titrate oxygen to keep O2 saturation at 90%.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The client is exhibiting signs of severe anemia and hypovolemic shock, indicated by low hemoglobin levels and hypotension. The first priority is to address the low hemoglobin by transfusing packed red blood cells to improve oxygen-carrying capacity and perfusion to vital organs. While obtaining blood and sputum cultures is important for identifying potential infections, infusing normal saline can help with volume expansion but does not address the primary issue of severe anemia. Titrating oxygen to maintain an oxygen saturation of 90% is crucial but should follow the administration of packed red blood cells to optimize oxygen delivery.
2. An adult female client with chronic kidney disease (CKD) asks the nurse if she can continue taking over-the-counter medications. Which medication provides the greatest threat to this client?
- A. Magnesium hydroxide (Maalox).
- B. Birth control pills.
- C. Cough syrup containing codeine.
- D. Cold medication containing alcohol.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Magnesium hydroxide (Maalox). In clients with CKD, magnesium can accumulate to toxic levels due to decreased excretion by the kidneys. Therefore, it poses the greatest threat to this client population. Choice B, birth control pills, is not typically contraindicated in CKD. Choice C, cough syrup containing codeine, may require dose adjustments but is not the greatest threat. Choice D, cold medication containing alcohol, is a concern mainly in liver disease, not CKD.
3. The parents of a 6-year-old recently diagnosed with asthma should be taught that symptoms of an acute episode of asthma are due to which physiological response?
- A. Inflammation of the mucous membrane and bronchospasm
- B. Increased mucus production and airway obstruction
- C. Hyperinflation of the lungs and alveolar collapse
- D. Bronchoconstriction and airway inflammation
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Bronchoconstriction and airway inflammation. During an acute asthma episode, bronchoconstriction and airway inflammation occur, leading to difficulty breathing. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect. Inflammation of the mucous membrane and bronchospasm (Choice A) are part of the pathophysiology of asthma but do not fully explain the symptoms during an acute episode. Increased mucus production and airway obstruction (Choice B) are also seen in asthma but are not the primary cause of acute symptoms. Hyperinflation of the lungs and alveolar collapse (Choice C) are not typical features of an acute asthma episode.
4. A woman who takes pyridostigmine for myasthenia gravis (MG) arrives at the emergency department complaining of extreme muscle weakness. Her adult daughter tells the nurse that since yesterday her mother has been unable to smile. Which assessment finding warrants immediate intervention by the nurse?
- A. Uncontrollable drooling.
- B. Inability to raise voice.
- C. Tingling of extremities.
- D. Eyelid drooping.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Uncontrollable drooling can be a sign of a myasthenic crisis, which requires immediate medical intervention to prevent respiratory failure. Drooling indicates difficulty in swallowing, which can lead to aspiration and respiratory compromise. Inability to raise voice (choice B) and tingling of extremities (choice C) are not typically associated with myasthenic crisis. Although eyelid drooping (choice D) is a common symptom of myasthenia gravis, it is not as urgent as uncontrollable drooling in indicating a potential crisis.
5. Which class of drugs is the only source of a cure for septic shock?
- A. Antihypertensives
- B. Anti-infectives
- C. Antihistamines
- D. Anticholesteremics
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Anti-infectives. Anti-infective agents, such as antibiotics, are essential in treating septic shock as they can eliminate bacteria and halt the progression of the condition by stopping the production of endotoxins. Antihypertensives (Choice A) are used to lower blood pressure, antihistamines (Choice C) are used to treat allergic reactions, and anticholesteremics (Choice D) are used to lower cholesterol levels. However, none of these drug classes directly address the bacterial infection that underlies septic shock.
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