Nursing Elites

1. The nurse assesses a client who is receiving an infusion of 5% dextrose in water with 20 mEq of potassium chloride. The client has oliguria and a serum potassium level of 6.5 mEq/L. What action should the nurse implement first?

• A. Notify the healthcare provider of the laboratory results
• B. Decrease the rate of the IV infusion
• C. Stop the infusion
• D. Administer sodium polystyrene sulfonate (Kayexalate)

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to implement first is to stop the infusion. Stopping the infusion is crucial to prevent further potassium from being administered, which can exacerbate the client's hyperkalemia. Notifying the healthcare provider of the laboratory results (Choice A) can be done after taking immediate action to stop the infusion. Decreasing the rate of the IV infusion (Choice B) may not be sufficient to address the high potassium level quickly. Administering sodium polystyrene sulfonate (Kayexalate) (Choice D) is not the initial action for managing hyperkalemia; stopping the potassium infusion takes precedence.

2. Which action should the nurse include in the plan of care for a client who is receiving acyclovir (Zovirax) IV for the treatment of herpes zoster (shingles)?

• A. Initiate cardiac telemetry monitoring
• B. Maintain continuous pulse oximetry
• C. Perform capillary glucose measurements
• D. Monitor serum creatinine levels

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is to monitor serum creatinine levels. Acyclovir can potentially impact kidney function, making it essential to monitor serum creatinine levels to assess renal function. Option A, initiating cardiac telemetry monitoring, is not directly related to acyclovir administration for herpes zoster. Option B, maintaining continuous pulse oximetry, is more relevant in assessing respiratory status rather than monitoring for acyclovir-related side effects. Option C, performing capillary glucose measurements, is not directly associated with acyclovir therapy for herpes zoster.

3. The nurse is planning care for a client who is receiving phenytoin (Dilantin) for seizure control. Which intervention is most important to include in this client’s plan of care?

• A. Monitor serum calcium levels
• B. Obtain a baseline electrocardiogram
• C. Implement seizure precautions
• D. Encourage a low-protein diet

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is to implement seizure precautions. Phenytoin is an antiepileptic medication used for seizure control. Seizure precautions are crucial for clients taking this medication to ensure their safety during a seizure episode. Monitoring serum calcium levels (Choice A) is not directly related to phenytoin therapy. Obtaining a baseline electrocardiogram (Choice B) is important for some medications but not the priority for a client on phenytoin. Encouraging a low-protein diet (Choice D) is not specifically indicated for clients on phenytoin and is not the most important intervention.

4. A 59-year-old male client is brought to the emergency room where he is assessed to have a Glasgow Coma Scale of 3. Based on this assessment, how should the nurse characterize the client's condition?

• A. The client is experiencing increased intracranial pressure
• B. He has a good prognosis for recovery
• C. This client is conscious, but is not oriented to time and place
• D. He is in a coma, and has a very poor prognosis

Correct answer: D

Rationale: A Glasgow Coma Scale of 3 indicates severe neurological impairment, suggesting a deep coma or even impending death. This client's condition is critical, and he has a very poor prognosis. Choice A is incorrect because a GCS of 3 does not directly indicate increased intracranial pressure. Choice B is incorrect as a GCS of 3 signifies a grave neurological status. Choice C is incorrect as a GCS of 3 represents a state of unconsciousness rather than being conscious but disoriented.

5. Which client requires careful nursing assessment for signs and symptoms of hypomagnesaemia?

• A. A young adult client with intractable vomiting due to food poisoning
• B. A client who developed hyperparathyroidism in late adolescence
• C. A middle-aged male client in renal failure following an unsuccessful kidney transplant
• D. A female client who excessively consumes simple carbohydrates

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. Clients in renal failure are at high risk for hypomagnesemia due to their impaired kidney function. Renal failure can lead to decreased excretion of magnesium, resulting in its buildup in the body and potential hypomagnesemia. This client requires careful nursing assessment for signs and symptoms of hypomagnesemia to prevent complications. Choices A, B, and D are not as directly associated with renal failure and its impact on magnesium levels. Intractable vomiting, hyperparathyroidism, and excessive consumption of simple carbohydrates may have other health implications but are not as strongly linked to hypomagnesemia as renal failure.

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