Nursing Elites

1. The nurse assesses a client who is receiving an infusion of 5% dextrose in water with 20 mEq of potassium chloride. The client has oliguria and a serum potassium level of 6.5 mEq/L. What action should the nurse implement first?

• A. Notify the healthcare provider of the laboratory results
• B. Decrease the rate of the IV infusion
• C. Stop the infusion
• D. Administer sodium polystyrene sulfonate (Kayexalate)

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to implement first is to stop the infusion. Stopping the infusion is crucial to prevent further potassium from being administered, which can exacerbate the client's hyperkalemia. Notifying the healthcare provider of the laboratory results (Choice A) can be done after taking immediate action to stop the infusion. Decreasing the rate of the IV infusion (Choice B) may not be sufficient to address the high potassium level quickly. Administering sodium polystyrene sulfonate (Kayexalate) (Choice D) is not the initial action for managing hyperkalemia; stopping the potassium infusion takes precedence.

2. A client who is taking ciprofloxacin (Cipro) reports to the nurse of having a loss of appetite and a metallic taste in the mouth. What action should the nurse implement?

• A. Reassure the client that these are common side effects of ciprofloxacin.
• B. Instruct the client to take ciprofloxacin with food.
• C. Notify the healthcare provider of the client's symptoms.
• D. Encourage the client to increase fluid intake.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take when a client on ciprofloxacin reports loss of appetite and a metallic taste in the mouth is to notify the healthcare provider of the client's symptoms. These symptoms could indicate a need for a change in medication or additional treatment, which the healthcare provider would need to assess. Instructing the client to take ciprofloxacin with food (choice B) may help with gastrointestinal upset but will not address the reported symptoms. Reassuring the client (choice A) is important for providing emotional support but does not address the need for further evaluation. Encouraging increased fluid intake (choice D) is generally beneficial but may not directly address the specific side effects reported.

3. The nurse is planning care for a client receiving chemotherapy. Which intervention should the nurse include to manage the client's nausea?

• A. Administer an antiemetic before meals
• B. Provide frequent mouth care
• C. Encourage small, frequent meals
• D. Offer clear liquids

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Administering an antiemetic before meals is a crucial intervention to manage chemotherapy-induced nausea. Antiemetics help prevent or reduce nausea and vomiting associated with chemotherapy. Providing frequent mouth care (choice B) is important for managing oral mucositis but not specifically for nausea. Encouraging small, frequent meals (choice C) and offering clear liquids (choice D) are beneficial strategies for managing gastrointestinal side effects but may not be as effective in controlling nausea as administering antiemetics.

4. A nurse is caring for a client with a new colostomy. Which instruction should the nurse include in the client's teaching plan?

• A. Change the ostomy appliance daily
• B. Empty the ostomy pouch when it is one-third full
• C. Rinse the ostomy pouch with warm water
• D. Apply a skin barrier to the peristomal skin

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct instruction the nurse should include in the client's teaching plan is to empty the ostomy pouch when it is one-third full. This practice helps prevent leakage and skin irritation by maintaining an appropriate pouching system. Changing the ostomy appliance daily (Choice A) is not necessary unless leakage or other issues occur. Rinsing the ostomy pouch with warm water (Choice C) is not a recommended practice as it may cause damage to the pouch. Applying a skin barrier to the peristomal skin (Choice D) is important but not the most crucial instruction in this scenario.

5. The nurse is caring for a client who is receiving heparin therapy. Which laboratory value should the nurse monitor to determine the effectiveness of the therapy?

• A. Prothrombin time (PT)
• B. Partial thromboplastin time (PTT)
• C. International normalized ratio (INR)
• D. Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT)

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C, International Normalized Ratio (INR). While INR is commonly used to monitor the effectiveness of warfarin therapy, in the case of heparin therapy, the Partial Thromboplastin Time (PTT) is the preferred test. Choice A, Prothrombin Time (PT), measures the activity of the extrinsic pathway of coagulation and is not the best choice for monitoring heparin therapy. Choice D, Activated Partial Thromboplastin Time (aPTT), is similar to PTT and is used to monitor heparin therapy, but PTT is the more specific test. Therefore, monitoring PTT is crucial in determining the effectiveness and safety of heparin therapy.

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