HESI RN
HESI RN CAT Exam Quizlet
1. A client who is HIV positive and taking lamivudine (Epivir) calls the clinic to report a cough and fever. What action should the nurse implement?
- A. Advise the client to come to the clinic for an evaluation
- B. Advise the client to increase fluid intake
- C. Advise the client to take an over-the-counter cough suppressant
- D. Advise the client to rest and call if the fever persists
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to implement in this situation is to advise the client to come to the clinic for an evaluation. Given the client's HIV-positive status and medication, it is crucial to assess the cough and fever promptly to identify the underlying cause. Increasing fluid intake (choice B) may be beneficial but does not address the need for evaluation. Taking an over-the-counter cough suppressant (choice C) may not be appropriate without knowing the cause of the symptoms. Advising the client to rest and call if the fever persists (choice D) delays the necessary evaluation and treatment.
2. The nurse is providing discharge teaching to a client with a new colostomy. Which statement by the client indicates a need for further teaching?
- A. I will avoid foods that cause gas.
- B. I will change my colostomy bag every week.
- C. I will use a skin barrier to protect the skin around the stoma.
- D. I will empty my colostomy bag when it is one-third full.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. Changing the colostomy bag every week is not sufficient; it should be changed more frequently to prevent leakage and skin irritation. Option A is correct as avoiding foods that cause gas can help manage colostomy-related symptoms. Option C is correct as using a skin barrier helps protect the skin around the stoma. Option D is correct as emptying the colostomy bag when it is one-third full helps prevent leakage and discomfort.
3. A client is admitted with a diagnosis of right-sided heart failure. What assessment finding should the nurse anticipate?
- A. Jugular vein distention.
- B. Crackles in the lungs.
- C. Peripheral edema.
- D. Hepatomegaly.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: In right-sided heart failure, the heart's inability to effectively pump blood to the lungs leads to fluid backup in the systemic circulation, resulting in peripheral edema (swelling in lower extremities). While jugular vein distention (A) and hepatomegaly (D) can also occur in right-sided heart failure, peripheral edema is a hallmark sign due to fluid retention. Crackles in the lungs (B) are more commonly associated with left-sided heart failure, where fluid accumulates in the lungs.
4. A 65-year-old male client with a history of smoking and high cholesterol is admitted with shortness of breath and chest pain. Which diagnostic test should the nurse anticipate preparing the client for first?
- A. Electrocardiogram (ECG)
- B. Chest X-ray
- C. Arterial blood gases (ABGs)
- D. Pulmonary function tests (PFTs)
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is an Electrocardiogram (ECG). An ECG should be performed first to assess for cardiac ischemia, especially given the client's symptoms and history. Chest X-ray (Choice B) may be ordered to evaluate the lungs but would not be the initial test for this client presenting with chest pain and shortness of breath. Arterial blood gases (ABGs) (Choice C) are used to assess oxygenation and acid-base balance but are not the primary diagnostic test for a client with suspected cardiac issues. Pulmonary function tests (PFTs) (Choice D) are used to assess lung function and would not be the first test indicated in this scenario.
5. While the nurse is discharging an adult woman who was hospitalized for 6 days for treatment of pneumonia and reviewing the prescribed medications, the client appears anxious. What action is most important for the nurse to implement?
- A. Instruct the client to repeat the medication plan
- B. Encourage the client to take a PRN antianxiety drug
- C. Provide written instructions that are easy to follow
- D. Include a family member in the teaching session
Correct answer: A
Rationale: In this situation, the most important action for the nurse to implement is to instruct the client to repeat the medication plan. By using the teach-back method, the nurse can ensure the client's understanding of the prescribed medications and address any concerns or anxieties the client may have. This approach promotes patient engagement, active participation, and retention of important information, ultimately enhancing medication adherence and safety.