HESI RN
HESI Pediatric Practice Exam
1. The caregiver is caring for a 10-year-old child with a history of frequent ear infections. The parents are concerned about their child’s hearing and speech development. What is the caregiver’s best response?
- A. Let’s schedule a hearing test and refer to a speech therapist if needed
- B. Most children outgrow ear infections and speech delays
- C. There is no need to worry unless the infections persist into adolescence
- D. Your child’s hearing and speech should be normal by now
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The appropriate response for the caregiver is to address the parents' concerns by suggesting scheduling a hearing test and potentially referring the child to a speech therapist if necessary. This proactive approach can help evaluate and support the child's hearing and speech development effectively. Choice B is incorrect as assuming that most children outgrow ear infections and speech delays may overlook potential issues that need intervention. Choice C is wrong because waiting until adolescence to address concerns may lead to missed opportunities for early intervention. Choice D is incorrect as it dismisses the parents' valid concerns without offering a solution or further evaluation.
2. What is the recommended analgesia for preparing a school-age child for a lumbar puncture (LP)?
- A. Ondansetron (Zofran) 4 mg / 5 ml PO TID.
- B. Codeine 10 mg PO 30 minutes before the procedure.
- C. A transdermal fentanyl (Duragesic) patch immediately before the procedure.
- D. EMLA (eutectic mixtures of local anesthetics) 2.5 hours before the procedure.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: For a lumbar puncture in a school-age child, EMLA cream should be applied 2.5 hours before the procedure. EMLA is commonly used to numb the skin, reducing pain and discomfort for the child during the procedure. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because ondansetron is an antiemetic, codeine is an opioid analgesic that may not be suitable for children, and transdermal fentanyl is a strong opioid that is not typically used for local anesthesia in children undergoing lumbar puncture.
3. A 7-year-old is admitted to the hospital with persistent vomiting, and a nasogastric tube attached to low intermittent suction is applied. Which finding is most important for the nurse to report to the healthcare provider?
- A. Gastric output of 100 mL in the last 8 hours.
- B. Shift intake of 640 mL IV fluids plus 30 mL PO ice chips.
- C. Serum potassium of 3.0 mEq/L.
- D. Serum pH of 7.45.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: A serum potassium level of 3.0 mEq/L is significantly low and indicates hypokalemia, which can lead to serious complications such as cardiac arrhythmias. Therefore, it is crucial for the nurse to report this finding promptly to the healthcare provider for immediate intervention. The other findings are not as critical in this situation. Gastric output of 100 mL in the last 8 hours may be expected in a patient with persistent vomiting. The shift intake of IV fluids and ice chips indicates fluid replacement, which is important but not as urgent as correcting electrolyte imbalances. A serum pH of 7.45 is within the normal range and does not indicate an immediate concern.
4. During a well-baby exam, a nurse finds that a 2-month-old's right testicle is not descended into the scrotum, but the left one is palpable. What should the nurse do?
- A. Ask if the right testis has been seen in the scrotum before
- B. Address potential concerns about future fertility
- C. Schedule an ultrasound to confirm the position of the testicle
- D. Prepare to obtain a urine specimen for culture
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is to ask if the right testis has been seen in the scrotum before. The initial step in managing an undescended testicle is to determine if it has been previously observed in the scrotum or if this is a new finding. This information is crucial in deciding the next course of action. Choice B is incorrect because addressing future fertility concerns comes after confirming the status of the testicle. Choice C is unnecessary at this stage as the first step is to gather more history. Choice D is unrelated to the issue described and is not indicated in this scenario.
5. A 3-year-old with a congenital heart defect has had a steady decrease in heart rate, now at 76 bpm from 110 bpm four hours ago. Which additional finding should be reported immediately to a healthcare provider?
- A. Oxygen saturation of 94%.
- B. Respiratory rate of 25 breaths/minute.
- C. Urine output of 20 mL/hr.
- D. Blood pressure of 70/40.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: A significant drop in heart rate and blood pressure should be reported immediately as it may indicate worsening of the congenital heart defect. The blood pressure of 70/40 is dangerously low and requires immediate attention to prevent further complications. Oxygen saturation of 94% is within an acceptable range and does not indicate immediate danger. A respiratory rate of 25 breaths/minute is slightly elevated but not a critical finding. Urine output of 20 mL/hr is low but may not be the most concerning finding in this scenario compared to the drop in blood pressure.
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