HESI RN
HESI Pediatric Practice Exam
1. The caregiver is caring for a 10-year-old child with a history of frequent ear infections. The parents are concerned about their child’s hearing and speech development. What is the caregiver’s best response?
- A. Let’s schedule a hearing test and refer to a speech therapist if needed
- B. Most children outgrow ear infections and speech delays
- C. There is no need to worry unless the infections persist into adolescence
- D. Your child’s hearing and speech should be normal by now
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The appropriate response for the caregiver is to address the parents' concerns by suggesting scheduling a hearing test and potentially referring the child to a speech therapist if necessary. This proactive approach can help evaluate and support the child's hearing and speech development effectively. Choice B is incorrect as assuming that most children outgrow ear infections and speech delays may overlook potential issues that need intervention. Choice C is wrong because waiting until adolescence to address concerns may lead to missed opportunities for early intervention. Choice D is incorrect as it dismisses the parents' valid concerns without offering a solution or further evaluation.
2. The healthcare provider is preparing to give an enema to a laboring client. Which client requires the most caution when carrying out this procedure?
- A. A gravida 6, para 5 who is 38 years of age and in early labor.
- B. A 37-week primigravida who presents at 100% effacement, 3 cm cervical dilation, and a -1 station.
- C. A gravida 2, para 1 who is at 1 cm cervical dilation and a 0 station admitted for induction of labor due to postdates.
- D. A 40-week primigravida who is at 6 cm cervical dilation and the presenting part is not engaged.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The client at 40 weeks of gestation with a 6 cm cervical dilation and a presenting part that is not engaged requires the most caution during an enema procedure. An unengaged presenting part increases the risk of cord prolapse, which can be a serious complication during the procedure. This situation demands careful attention to prevent potential complications and ensure the safety of the client and fetus. Choice A is incorrect as being in early labor does not pose the same level of risk as an unengaged presenting part. Choice B describes a client at 37 weeks with signs of early labor but does not indicate the same level of risk as an unengaged presenting part. Choice C involves a client at 1 cm cervical dilation and a 0 station with no mention of an unengaged presenting part, making it a less critical situation compared to an unengaged presentation, as in Choice D.
3. A client with hyperparathyroidism is being assessed. Which of the following symptoms is the nurse likely to find?
- A. Tetany
- B. Hypocalcemia
- C. Bone pain
- D. Hypotension
Correct answer: C
Rationale: In hyperparathyroidism, there is excessive production of parathyroid hormone, leading to increased calcium resorption from the bones. This process causes bone pain, making choice C the correct answer. Tetany (choice A) is associated with hypocalcemia, not hyperparathyroidism. Hypocalcemia (choice B) is the opposite condition of hyperparathyroidism, where blood calcium levels are elevated. Hypotension (choice D) is not a typical symptom of hyperparathyroidism.
4. Before initiating a client with tuberculosis on anti-tuberculosis therapy with isoniazid (INH), a nurse ensures that which of the following baseline study has been completed?
- A. Electrolyte levels
- B. Coagulation times
- C. Liver enzyme levels
- D. Serum creatinine level
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Before starting INH therapy for tuberculosis, it is essential to assess liver enzyme levels as INH can cause hepatotoxicity. Monitoring liver enzyme levels before and during the initial 3 months of therapy is crucial to detect any liver damage early and prevent further complications. Choice A, electrolyte levels, are not directly impacted by INH therapy. Choice B, coagulation times, are not routinely monitored before starting INH therapy. Choice D, serum creatinine level, is not specifically required as a baseline study before initiating INH therapy for tuberculosis.
5. The father of a 4-year-old has been battling metastatic lung cancer for the past 2 years. After discussing the remaining options with his healthcare provider, the client requests that all treatment stop and that no heroic measures be taken to save his life. When the client is transferred to the palliative care unit, which action is most important for the nurse working on the palliative care unit to take in facilitating continuity of care?
- A. Ensure the client's family is aware of the client's wishes
- B. Begin comfort measures immediately
- C. Obtain a detailed report from the nurse transferring the client
- D. Confirm that the client understands the treatment plan
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Obtaining a detailed report from the previous nurse ensures continuity of care and that all relevant information is passed on. This is critical in palliative care, where comfort measures and symptom management are key components of care. Choice A is not the most important action in this scenario, as the question focuses on continuity of care within the healthcare team. Beginning comfort measures immediately, as in choice B, is essential but obtaining a detailed report takes precedence to ensure a smooth transition of care. Confirming that the client understands the treatment plan, as in choice D, is important but does not directly address the need for continuity of care through a detailed report.