the nurse is caring for a 10 year old child with a history of frequent ear infections the parents are concerned about their childs hearing and speech
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HESI RN

HESI Pediatric Practice Exam

1. The caregiver is caring for a 10-year-old child with a history of frequent ear infections. The parents are concerned about their child’s hearing and speech development. What is the caregiver’s best response?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The appropriate response for the caregiver is to address the parents' concerns by suggesting scheduling a hearing test and potentially referring the child to a speech therapist if necessary. This proactive approach can help evaluate and support the child's hearing and speech development effectively. Choice B is incorrect as assuming that most children outgrow ear infections and speech delays may overlook potential issues that need intervention. Choice C is wrong because waiting until adolescence to address concerns may lead to missed opportunities for early intervention. Choice D is incorrect as it dismisses the parents' valid concerns without offering a solution or further evaluation.

2. A 10-year-old girl who has had type 1 diabetes mellitus (DM) for the past two years tells the nurse that she would like to use a pump instead of insulin injections to manage her diabetes. Which assessment of the girl is most important for the nurse to obtain?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In a patient transitioning to an insulin pump, understanding the quality control process to troubleshoot the pump is crucial for ensuring proper and safe management of diabetes. This knowledge enables the individual to identify and address any issues that may arise with the pump, helping maintain optimal glycemic control and prevent complications. Choices B, C, and D, although important in diabetes management, are not as critical as ensuring the correct understanding of troubleshooting the pump, which directly impacts the girl's ability to effectively use the pump for insulin delivery.

3. During a well-baby exam, a nurse finds that a 2-month-old's right testicle is not descended into the scrotum, but the left one is palpable. What should the nurse do?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to ask if the right testis has been seen in the scrotum before. The initial step in managing an undescended testicle is to determine if it has been previously observed in the scrotum or if this is a new finding. This information is crucial in deciding the next course of action. Choice B is incorrect because addressing future fertility concerns comes after confirming the status of the testicle. Choice C is unnecessary at this stage as the first step is to gather more history. Choice D is unrelated to the issue described and is not indicated in this scenario.

4. When teaching parents of a 5-year-old child with sickle cell anemia about pain management, what information should be included?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Administering prescribed pain medication at the first sign of pain is crucial in managing sickle cell anemia-related pain effectively. Prompt administration helps prevent the pain from escalating and becoming severe, enhancing the child's comfort and quality of life. Cold compresses, rest, and diet modifications may play supportive roles but are not as directly impactful in addressing acute pain episodes associated with sickle cell anemia. Therefore, while comforting measures like cold compresses and rest are helpful, they should not replace the importance of timely administration of prescribed pain medication. Additionally, offering a high-protein diet, although important for overall health, is not directly linked to managing acute pain in sickle cell anemia.

5. The nurse is conducting an admission assessment of an 11-month-old infant with CHF who is scheduled for repair of restenosis of coarction of the aorta that was repaired 4 days after birth. Findings include blood pressure higher in the arms than the lower extremities, pounding brachial pulses, and slightly palpable femoral pulses. What pathophysiologic mechanisms support these findings?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Coarctation of the aorta causes narrowing of the aorta, reducing blood flow to the lower extremities. This narrowing results in higher blood pressure in the arms compared to the lower extremities, along with stronger brachial pulses and slightly palpable femoral pulses. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because they do not align with the pathophysiological mechanism of coarctation of the aorta, which specifically leads to reduced blood flow to the lower extremities.

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