Nursing Elites

1. The caregiver is caring for a 10-year-old child with a history of frequent ear infections. The parents are concerned about their child’s hearing and speech development. What is the caregiver’s best response?

• A. Let’s schedule a hearing test and refer to a speech therapist if needed
• B. Most children outgrow ear infections and speech delays
• C. There is no need to worry unless the infections persist into adolescence
• D. Your child’s hearing and speech should be normal by now

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The appropriate response for the caregiver is to address the parents' concerns by suggesting scheduling a hearing test and potentially referring the child to a speech therapist if necessary. This proactive approach can help evaluate and support the child's hearing and speech development effectively. Choice B is incorrect as assuming that most children outgrow ear infections and speech delays may overlook potential issues that need intervention. Choice C is wrong because waiting until adolescence to address concerns may lead to missed opportunities for early intervention. Choice D is incorrect as it dismisses the parents' valid concerns without offering a solution or further evaluation.

2. A 9-week-old infant is scheduled for cleft lip repair. Which information is most important for the nurse to convey to the surgeon before transporting the infant to the surgical suite?

• A. Red blood cell count of 2.3 million/mm³
• B. White blood cell count of 10,000/mm³
• C. Weight gain of 2 pounds since birth
• D. Urine specific gravity is 1.011

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A because a low red blood cell count may indicate anemia, which could pose risks during surgery. Anemia can affect oxygen delivery to tissues, impacting wound healing and overall surgical outcomes. The other options, such as white blood cell count, weight gain, and urine specific gravity, are less critical for immediate surgical considerations. White blood cell count is more related to infection risk postoperatively rather than immediate surgical risk. Weight gain reflects good overall growth but does not impact the immediate surgical situation. Urine specific gravity is more indicative of hydration status rather than immediate surgical risk.

3. What is the priority action for a 2-year-old child with croup presenting with a barking cough and stridor?

• A. Administer a corticosteroid
• B. Obtain a throat culture
• C. Administer nebulized epinephrine
• D. Place the child in an upright position

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The priority action for a 2-year-old child with croup and stridor is to administer nebulized epinephrine. Nebulized epinephrine helps reduce airway swelling, alleviate symptoms, and improve breathing by causing vasoconstriction and reducing upper airway edema. Administering a corticosteroid may be done but is not the priority in this scenario. Obtaining a throat culture is not necessary for the immediate management of croup. Placing the child in an upright position can aid in breathing but is not the priority action when the child is presenting with stridor.

4. A 4-month-old girl is brought to the clinic by her mother because she has had a cold for 2 to 3 days and woke up this morning with a hacking cough and difficulty breathing. Which additional assessment finding should alert the nurse that the child is in acute respiratory distress?

• A. Bilateral bronchial breath sounds.
• B. Diaphragmatic respiration.
• C. A resting respiratory rate of 35 breaths per minute.
• D. Flaring of the nares.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Flaring of the nares is a clinical sign of acute respiratory distress in infants. It indicates an increased effort to breathe and is a crucial finding that requires immediate attention, as it signifies the child is having difficulty breathing and may be in respiratory distress. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect. Bilateral bronchial breath sounds may be present in conditions like pneumonia but do not specifically indicate acute respiratory distress. Diaphragmatic respiration is a normal breathing pattern and not a sign of distress. A resting respiratory rate of 35 breaths per minute in a 4-month-old infant is within the expected range, so it does not necessarily indicate acute respiratory distress.

5. A 7-year-old child with cystic fibrosis is admitted to the hospital with a respiratory infection. The nurse is teaching the child’s parents about the importance of chest physiotherapy (CPT). Which statement by the parents indicates they need further teaching?

• A. We should perform CPT before meals.
• B. CPT will help loosen mucus in the lungs.
• C. We should perform CPT right after the child eats.
• D. CPT is an important part of our child’s treatment.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. Chest physiotherapy should not be performed right after meals to avoid inducing vomiting. It should be done before meals or at least 1 hour after for effective mucus clearance and to prevent any potential complications like vomiting. Choice A is correct as performing CPT before meals helps in loosening mucus. Choice B is also correct as CPT is indeed helpful in loosening mucus in the lungs. Choice D is correct as CPT plays a crucial role in the treatment of cystic fibrosis.

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