Nursing Elites

1. The parents of a 3-year-old boy who has Duchenne muscular dystrophy (DMD) ask, 'how can our son have this disease? We are wondering if we should have any more children.' What information should the nurse provide these parents?

• A. This is an inherited X-linked recessive disorder, which primarily affects male children in the family.
• B. The male infant had a viral infection that went unnoticed and untreated, leading to muscle damage.
• C. The lack of the protein dystrophin in the mother can impact the muscle groups of males.
• D. Damage to the spinal cord due to birth trauma from a breech vaginal birth weakens the muscles.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The nurse should inform the parents that Duchenne muscular dystrophy is an X-linked recessive disorder, which primarily affects male children in the family. This genetic condition is caused by a mutation in the dystrophin gene located on the X chromosome. Females are usually carriers of the gene mutation and may pass it on to their sons. Daughters of carrier mothers have a 50% chance of being carriers themselves. Understanding the genetics of DMD can help the parents make informed decisions about family planning and genetic counseling.

2. The parents of a 2-year-old child with a history of febrile seizures are being taught by the healthcare provider. Which statement by the parents indicates a need for further teaching?

• A. We should give our child acetaminophen when they have a fever.
• B. We should not place our child in a cool bath during a seizure.
• C. We should call 911 if the seizure lasts longer than 5 minutes.
• D. We should try to keep our child’s fever under control.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Placing a child in a cool bath during a seizure is not recommended as it can be dangerous and may lead to accidental drowning or injuries. The priority during a febrile seizure is to ensure the safety of the child by placing them on a soft surface, removing any nearby objects that may cause harm, and gently turning their head to the side to prevent aspiration. Cooling measures like removing excess clothing can be employed, but immersing the child in a cool bath is not advised. Calling 911 if the seizure lasts longer than 5 minutes is important to seek immediate medical assistance. Administering acetaminophen to reduce fever and trying to keep the child's fever under control are appropriate interventions which should be continued.

3. A 10-year-old child with hemophilia is admitted to the hospital with joint pain and swelling. What should the healthcare provider do first?

• A. Apply ice to the affected joint
• B. Administer pain medication
• C. Elevate the affected limb
• D. Administer factor VIII as prescribed

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Administering factor VIII as prescribed is the priority intervention for a child with hemophilia experiencing joint pain and swelling. Hemophilia is a genetic disorder that impairs the blood's ability to clot properly, leading to prolonged bleeding. Factor VIII replacement therapy is essential as it helps restore the missing clotting factor in patients with hemophilia, thereby aiding in clot formation and preventing further bleeding. Applying ice, administering pain medication, or elevating the limb may be supportive measures but addressing the underlying cause by providing factor VIII therapy takes precedence in managing hemophilia-related joint pain and swelling.

4. A child receives a prescription for amantadine 42 mg PO BID. Amantadine is available as a 50 mg/5 mL syrup. Using a supplied calibrated measuring device, how many mL should be administered per dose? (Round to the nearest tenth.)

• A. 4.2 mL
• B. 5 mL
• C. 3.6 mL
• D. 4 mL

Correct answer: A

Rationale: To calculate the mL per dose, divide the prescribed dose (42 mg) by the concentration of the syrup (50 mg/5 mL) and then convert the result to mL. 42 mg / 50 mg = 0.84. To find the amount in mL, multiply 0.84 by 5 mL, which equals 4.2 mL. Therefore, 4.2 mL should be administered per dose.

5. A child who weighs 25 kg is receiving IV ampicillin at a dose of 300 mg/kg/24 hours in equally divided doses every 4 hours. How many milligrams should the nurse administer to the child for each dose?

• A. 1875 mg
• B. 625 mg
• C. 2000 mg
• D. 1500 mg

Correct answer: A

Rationale: To calculate the correct dose for each administration, you first need to find the total daily dose: 300 mg/kg * 25 kg = 7500 mg/day. Since this total dose is divided into equally divided doses every 4 hours, there are 6 doses in 24 hours. Therefore, 7500 mg ÷ 6 doses = 1250 mg per dose. The nurse should administer 1250 mg every 4 hours, resulting in a total of 1875 mg for each dose in a 24-hour period. Choice A, 1875 mg, is the correct answer. Choice B, 625 mg, is incorrect as it does not consider the total daily dose and the frequency of administration. Choice C, 2000 mg, is incorrect as it is not the calculated dosage based on the given parameters. Choice D, 1500 mg, is also incorrect as it does not reflect the correct dosage calculation for each dose.

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