Nursing Elites

1. The parents of a 3-year-old boy who has Duchenne muscular dystrophy (DMD) ask, 'how can our son have this disease? We are wondering if we should have any more children.' What information should the nurse provide these parents?

• A. This is an inherited X-linked recessive disorder, which primarily affects male children in the family.
• B. The male infant had a viral infection that went unnoticed and untreated, leading to muscle damage.
• C. The lack of the protein dystrophin in the mother can impact the muscle groups of males.
• D. Damage to the spinal cord due to birth trauma from a breech vaginal birth weakens the muscles.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The nurse should inform the parents that Duchenne muscular dystrophy is an X-linked recessive disorder, which primarily affects male children in the family. This genetic condition is caused by a mutation in the dystrophin gene located on the X chromosome. Females are usually carriers of the gene mutation and may pass it on to their sons. Daughters of carrier mothers have a 50% chance of being carriers themselves. Understanding the genetics of DMD can help the parents make informed decisions about family planning and genetic counseling.

2. A 7-year-old child is admitted to the hospital with nephrotic syndrome. The nurse notes that the child has gained 3 pounds in the past 24 hours. What should the nurse do first?

• A. Administer a diuretic as prescribed
• B. Restrict the child’s fluid intake
• C. Notify the healthcare provider
• D. Measure the child’s abdominal girth

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In a child with nephrotic syndrome experiencing sudden weight gain, the priority action for the nurse is to notify the healthcare provider. This weight gain could indicate worsening edema or fluid retention, necessitating immediate medical evaluation and intervention. The healthcare provider can conduct a comprehensive assessment, order necessary tests, and adjust the treatment plan accordingly. Administering a diuretic, restricting fluid intake, or measuring abdominal girth should not be initiated without healthcare provider consultation to ensure appropriate management of the child's condition.

3. What information should be reinforced with the mother of a child with ringworm (Tinea)?

• A. Ringworm is not contagious.
• B. Tinea infections are indicative of poor hygiene and uncleanliness.
• C. Tinea infections are spread by direct and indirect contact.
• D. Ringworm often subsides spontaneously.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. Ringworm, a fungal infection, is highly contagious and can be spread by direct contact with infected individuals or animals and indirectly through contaminated objects. It is important for the mother to understand the modes of transmission to prevent the spread of the infection to others and to take necessary precautions to ensure proper treatment and containment of the condition. Choices A and D are incorrect because ringworm is indeed contagious, and it may not always subside spontaneously. Choice B is misleading as tinea infections are not solely indicative of poor hygiene; they can affect anyone, regardless of personal cleanliness.

4. What is the best response for a two-year-old boy who begins to cry when the mother starts to leave?

• A. Let's wave bye-bye to mommy.
• B. Two-year-olds usually stop crying the minute the parent leaves.
• C. Now be a big boy. Mommy will be back soon.
• D. Let's wave bye-bye to mommy.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The best response for a two-year-old boy who begins to cry when the mother starts to leave is to wave bye-bye to mommy. This action helps the child understand that the separation is temporary and gives him a sense of closure. Choice A is the correct answer. Choice B is incorrect as it generalizes the behavior of two-year-olds. Choice C may invalidate the child's feelings by telling him to 'be a big boy' instead of acknowledging his emotions and providing comfort.

5. A 2-year-old child with heart failure (HF) is admitted for replacement of a graft for coarctation of the aorta. Prior to administering the next dose of digoxin (Lanoxin), the nurse obtains an apical heart rate of 128 bpm. What action should the nurse take?

• A. Determine the pulse deficit.
• B. Administer the scheduled dose.
• C. Calculate the safe dose range.
• D. Review the serum digoxin level.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Administering the scheduled dose is appropriate in this scenario. The nurse obtained an apical heart rate of 128 bpm, which is within the expected range for a 2-year-old child. Therefore, there is no immediate concern to withhold the scheduled dose of digoxin. Determining the pulse deficit is not necessary as the heart rate is appropriate. Calculating the safe dose range is not needed as the current dose is within the therapeutic range. Reviewing the serum digoxin level may be indicated later for monitoring but is not urgent based on the heart rate assessment. Administering the scheduled dose of digoxin is the correct action at this time.

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