Nursing Elites

1. Which statement by a school-aged client going to summer camp indicates the best understanding of the mode of transmission of Lyme disease?

• A. I'll cover my mouth with a wet cloth if there's too much dust blowing.
• B. Cuts and scrapes need to be washed out and covered right away.
• C. I'm not going to swim where the water is standing still or feels too hot.
• D. I have to wear long sleeves and pants when we're hiking around the pond.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. Wearing long sleeves and pants is an effective measure to prevent tick bites, which can transmit Lyme disease. Ticks are commonly found in wooded areas and tall grass, so covering exposed skin helps reduce the risk of tick bites and subsequently lowers the risk of contracting Lyme disease. Choices A, B, and C do not directly address the mode of transmission of Lyme disease. Option A pertains to respiratory protection against dust, Option B focuses on wound care, and Option C relates to water safety, none of which are directly related to preventing Lyme disease transmission.

2. The healthcare provider is assessing a child for neurological soft signs. Which finding is most likely demonstrated in the child's behavior?

• A. Inability to move the tongue in a specific direction.
• B. Presence of vertigo.
• C. Poor coordination and sense of position.
• D. Loss of visual acuity.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Neurological soft signs in children often manifest as poor coordination and a sense of position. These signs can indicate underlying neurological issues and are important to assess in pediatric patients. Choices A, B, and D are less likely to be associated with neurological soft signs in children. Inability to move the tongue in a specific direction may suggest a cranial nerve dysfunction rather than general neurological soft signs. Presence of vertigo is more related to inner ear disturbances or vestibular issues. Loss of visual acuity may indicate problems with the eyes rather than general neurological soft signs.

3. What should the nurse do first for a 6-year-old with asthma showing a prolonged expiratory phase, wheezing, and 35% of personal best peak expiratory flow rate (PEFR)?

• A. Administer a prescribed bronchodilator.
• B. Encourage the child to cough and take deep breaths.
• C. Report the findings to the healthcare provider.
• D. Identify the triggers that precipitated this attack.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Administering a bronchodilator is the priority action in managing an acute asthma exacerbation in a child. Bronchodilators help to relax the muscles around the airways, opening them up and improving breathing. This intervention aims to address the immediate breathing difficulty and should be done promptly to provide relief for the child. Encouraging coughing and deep breaths (choice B) may worsen the child's condition by further constricting the airways. Reporting findings to the healthcare provider (choice C) is important but not the immediate priority in this acute situation. Identifying triggers (choice D) is crucial for long-term asthma management but is not the first step when managing an acute exacerbation.

4. The heart rate for a 3-year-old with a congenital heart defect has steadily decreased over the last few hours, now it's 76 bpm, the previous reading 4 hours ago was 110 bpm. Which additional finding should be reported immediately to a healthcare provider?

• A. Oxygen saturation 94%.
• B. RR of 25 breaths/minute.
• C. Urine output 20 mL/hr.
• D. BP 70/40.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: A significant drop in heart rate and blood pressure should be reported immediately as it may indicate worsening of the congenital heart defect. A decrease in blood pressure may suggest poor cardiac output and compromised perfusion, requiring urgent medical attention. The other findings (oxygen saturation of 94%, RR of 25 breaths/minute, and urine output of 20 mL/hr) are within normal ranges for a 3-year-old and do not indicate immediate deterioration of the heart defect.

5. When should the surgical correction of hypospadias in a newborn infant typically be done?

• A. Repair should be done by one month to prevent bladder infection.
• B. To form a proper urethra repair, it should be done after sexual maturity.
• C. Repairs typically should be done before the child is potty trained.
• D. Delaying the repair until school age reduces castration fears.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Surgical repairs for hypospadias are typically recommended to be performed before the child is potty trained. This timing helps in avoiding complications, ensures better outcomes, and makes the surgical process smoother. Early correction also minimizes the psychological impact on the child regarding genital differences and can improve long-term psychological well-being. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because repairing hypospadias at one month to prevent bladder infection, after sexual maturity to form a proper urethra, or delaying the repair until school age to reduce castration fears are not the standard recommendations. The optimal timing for surgical correction is before the child is potty trained to achieve the best results and psychological outcomes.

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