Nursing Elites

1. Which statement by a school-aged client going to summer camp indicates the best understanding of the mode of transmission of Lyme disease?

• A. I'll cover my mouth with a wet cloth if there's too much dust blowing.
• B. Cuts and scrapes need to be washed out and covered right away.
• C. I'm not going to swim where the water is standing still or feels too hot.
• D. I have to wear long sleeves and pants when we're hiking around the pond.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. Wearing long sleeves and pants is an effective measure to prevent tick bites, which can transmit Lyme disease. Ticks are commonly found in wooded areas and tall grass, so covering exposed skin helps reduce the risk of tick bites and subsequently lowers the risk of contracting Lyme disease. Choices A, B, and C do not directly address the mode of transmission of Lyme disease. Option A pertains to respiratory protection against dust, Option B focuses on wound care, and Option C relates to water safety, none of which are directly related to preventing Lyme disease transmission.

2. The healthcare provider is developing the plan of care for a hospitalized child with von Willebrand disease. What priority nursing intervention should be included in this child's plan of care?

• A. Reduce exposure to infection.
• B. Eliminate contact with cold objects.
• C. Guard against bleeding injuries.
• D. Reduce contact with other children.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Children with von Willebrand disease have a deficiency in a clotting protein, putting them at risk of bleeding episodes. The priority nursing intervention for a child with von Willebrand disease is to guard against bleeding injuries to prevent excessive bleeding or hemorrhage. Choices A, B, and D are not the priority interventions for von Willebrand disease. While reducing exposure to infection is important for any hospitalized child, it is not the priority for von Willebrand disease. Eliminating contact with cold objects is more relevant for conditions like Raynaud's disease. Reducing contact with other children is not a specific priority related to managing von Willebrand disease.

3. A 10-year-old child with hemophilia is admitted to the hospital with joint pain and swelling. What should the healthcare provider do first?

• A. Apply ice to the affected joint
• B. Administer pain medication
• C. Elevate the affected limb
• D. Administer factor VIII as prescribed

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Administering factor VIII as prescribed is the priority intervention for a child with hemophilia experiencing joint pain and swelling. Hemophilia is a genetic disorder that impairs the blood's ability to clot properly, leading to prolonged bleeding. Factor VIII replacement therapy is essential as it helps restore the missing clotting factor in patients with hemophilia, thereby aiding in clot formation and preventing further bleeding. Applying ice, administering pain medication, or elevating the limb may be supportive measures but addressing the underlying cause by providing factor VIII therapy takes precedence in managing hemophilia-related joint pain and swelling.

4. A 6-year-old boy with bronchial asthma takes the beta-adrenergic agonist albuterol (Proventil). The child’s mother tells the nurse that she uses this medication to open her son’s airway when he is having trouble breathing. What is the nurse’s best response?

• A. Recommend that the mother bring the child in for immediate evaluation
• B. Advise the mother that overuse of the drug may cause chronic bronchitis
• C. Assure the mother that she is using the medication correctly
• D. Confirm that the medication helps to reduce airway inflammation

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct response is to assure the mother that she is using the medication correctly. Albuterol is a beta-adrenergic agonist that helps open the airways during an asthma attack. By reassuring the mother, the nurse reinforces the correct usage of the medication, which is crucial in managing the child's asthma symptoms effectively. Option A is incorrect because immediate evaluation may not be necessary if the child's symptoms are being managed effectively with albuterol. Option B is incorrect as chronic bronchitis is not typically associated with the overuse of albuterol. Option D is incorrect as albuterol primarily acts as a bronchodilator and does not directly reduce airway inflammation.

5. In a 6-year-old child with asthma experiencing difficulty breathing and using accessory muscles to breathe with a peak flow reading in the red zone, what should the nurse do first?

• A. Administer a nebulized bronchodilator
• B. Obtain an arterial blood gas
• C. Start the child on oxygen therapy
• D. Contact the healthcare provider

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct action for a 6-year-old child with asthma who is experiencing difficulty breathing, using accessory muscles to breathe, and has a peak flow reading in the red zone is to administer a nebulized bronchodilator first. Nebulized bronchodilators work rapidly to open up the airways, providing immediate relief and improving breathing. This intervention is crucial in addressing the acute respiratory distress the child is facing. Obtaining an arterial blood gas, starting oxygen therapy, or contacting the healthcare provider can be considered after the initial administration of the bronchodilator, as they are not the primary interventions needed to manage the child's acute respiratory distress.

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