Nursing Elites

1. The nurse is assessing a client with left-sided heart failure. Which assessment finding is most concerning?

• A. Jugular venous distention
• B. Peripheral edema
• C. Shortness of breath
• D. Crackles in the lungs

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Shortness of breath is the most concerning finding in a client with left-sided heart failure as it indicates worsening pulmonary congestion and impaired gas exchange. This symptom suggests that the client is experiencing significant difficulty in breathing and inadequate oxygenation, requiring immediate intervention. Jugular venous distention (Choice A) is often seen in right-sided heart failure, while peripheral edema (Choice B) and crackles in the lungs (Choice D) are common manifestations of left-sided heart failure but are not as acutely concerning as severe shortness of breath, which can rapidly progress to respiratory distress if not addressed promptly.

2. The healthcare provider prescribes carboprost tromethamine (Hemabate) 250 mcg IM for a multigravida postpartum client who is experiencing heavy, bright red vaginal bleeding. Prior to administering this medication, which intervention should the RN implement?

• A. Give the prescribed antiemetic.
• B. Administer IV fluids.
• C. Prepare for possible blood transfusion.
• D. Monitor vital signs every 5 minutes.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Hemabate can cause severe nausea, vomiting, or diarrhea, so administering the prescribed antiemetic can help manage these side effects. Choice B is incorrect as there is no indication in the scenario to administer IV fluids. Choice C is not the priority at this stage as the client's condition does not necessitate an immediate blood transfusion. Choice D is unnecessary every 5 minutes; monitoring vital signs should be done but not at such a high frequency.

3. A male client is admitted with a bowel obstruction and intractable vomiting for the last several hours despite the use of antiemetics. Which intervention should the nurse implement first?

• A. Infuse 0.9% sodium chloride 500 ml bolus
• B. Administer an antiemetic intravenously
• C. Insert a nasogastric tube
• D. Prepare the client for surgery

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct first intervention for a male client with a bowel obstruction and intractable vomiting is to infuse 0.9% sodium chloride 500 ml bolus. This intervention is crucial to address the risk of hypovolemia due to excessive vomiting. Administering intravenous fluids will help prevent dehydration, maintain blood pressure, and stabilize the client's condition. Choice B, administering an antiemetic intravenously, may not be effective as the client has already been unresponsive to antiemetics orally. Choice C, inserting a nasogastric tube, may be necessary but is not the priority in this situation. Choice D, preparing the client for surgery, should only be considered after stabilizing the client's fluid and electrolyte balance.

4. To reduce staff nurse role ambiguity, which strategy should the nurse-manager implement?

• A. Review the staff nurse job description to ensure that it is clear, accurate, and current.
• B. Conduct regular meetings to clarify roles.
• C. Increase communication between team members.
• D. Provide additional training for new nurses.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Review the staff nurse job description to ensure that it is clear, accurate, and current. By ensuring that job descriptions are clear and up-to-date, nurse-managers can reduce ambiguity and confusion about roles and responsibilities. Choice B, conducting regular meetings to clarify roles, may help but may not address the root cause of ambiguity. Choice C, increasing communication between team members, is important but may not specifically target role ambiguity. Choice D, providing additional training for new nurses, is valuable but may not directly address role ambiguity among existing staff.

5. While caring for a toddler receiving oxygen (02) via face mask, the nurse observes that the child's lips and nares are dry and cracked. Which intervention should the nurse implement?

• A. Ask the mother what she usually uses on the child's lips and nose.
• B. Apply a petroleum jelly (Vaseline) to the child's nose and lips.
• C. Use a topical lidocaine (Zylocaine viscous) analgesic for cracked lips.
• D. Use a water-soluble lubricant on affected oral and nasal mucosa.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: A water-soluble lubricant is safe to use in conjunction with oxygen therapy, unlike petroleum jelly which is flammable.

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