Nursing Elites

1. The nurse is assessing a client with left-sided heart failure. Which assessment finding is most concerning?

• A. Jugular venous distention
• B. Peripheral edema
• C. Shortness of breath
• D. Crackles in the lungs

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Shortness of breath is the most concerning finding in a client with left-sided heart failure as it indicates worsening pulmonary congestion and impaired gas exchange. This symptom suggests that the client is experiencing significant difficulty in breathing and inadequate oxygenation, requiring immediate intervention. Jugular venous distention (Choice A) is often seen in right-sided heart failure, while peripheral edema (Choice B) and crackles in the lungs (Choice D) are common manifestations of left-sided heart failure but are not as acutely concerning as severe shortness of breath, which can rapidly progress to respiratory distress if not addressed promptly.

2. A gravida 2 para 1, at 38-weeks gestation, scheduled for a repeat cesarean section in one week, is brought to the labor and delivery unit complaining of contractions every 10 minutes. While assessing the client, the client's mother enters the labor suite and says in a loud voice, 'I've had 8 children and I know she's in labor. I want her to have her cesarean section right now!' What action should the nurse take?

• A. Tell the mother to stop speaking for the client.
• B. Notify the charge nurse of the situation.
• C. Request that the mother leave the room.
• D. Request security to remove her from the room.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In this scenario, the most appropriate action for the nurse to take is to request that the mother leave the room. This is important to maintain a calm environment and allow the healthcare team to assess and manage the situation without interference. Option A is not the best choice as it may escalate the situation. Option B, notifying the charge nurse, could be considered after addressing the immediate need to remove the mother from the room. Option D, requesting security to remove her, is not necessary at this point and may further escalate the situation unnecessarily.

3. A confused, older client with Alzheimer's disease becomes incontinent of urine when attempting to find the bathroom. Which action should the nurse implement?

• A. Assist the client to a bedside commode every two hours
• B. Insert an indwelling catheter
• C. Use adult diapers to manage incontinence
• D. Restrict fluids in the evening

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to implement is to assist the client to a bedside commode every two hours. This approach, known as scheduled toileting, is essential in managing incontinence in clients with cognitive impairments like Alzheimer's disease. By providing regular assistance to the client to use the commode, the nurse can help maintain continence and reduce accidents. Inserting an indwelling catheter (Choice B) should be avoided if possible to prevent the risk of urinary tract infections. Using adult diapers (Choice C) should be considered a last resort and not the initial intervention. Restricting fluids in the evening (Choice D) is not appropriate as it may lead to dehydration and other complications.

4. The nurse is caring for a client with a chest tube in place following a pneumothorax. Which finding requires immediate intervention?

• A. Oxygen saturation of 95%
• B. Crepitus around the insertion site
• C. Subcutaneous emphysema
• D. Drainage of 50 ml per hour

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Subcutaneous emphysema requires immediate intervention in a client with a chest tube following a pneumothorax as it can indicate a pneumothorax recurrence or air leak. Oxygen saturation of 95% is within the normal range and does not require immediate intervention. Crepitus around the insertion site can be expected post-procedure and may not necessitate immediate action. Drainage of 50 ml per hour is a normal finding and does not raise immediate concerns.

5. A client with type 1 diabetes is admitted with diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA). Which intervention should the nurse implement first?

• A. Administer intravenous insulin as prescribed.
• B. Monitor the client's urine output.
• C. Administer intravenous fluids.
• D. Administer 50% dextrose IV push.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Administering intravenous insulin is the initial priority in managing diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA). Insulin helps to reduce blood glucose levels and correct metabolic acidosis, addressing the underlying cause of DKA. Monitoring urine output (choice B) is important but is not the first intervention needed. Administering intravenous fluids (choice C) is essential to correct dehydration in DKA, but insulin therapy takes precedence. Administering 50% dextrose IV push (choice D) is contraindicated in DKA as it can exacerbate hyperglycemia.

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