HESI RN
HESI RN Exit Exam 2023
1. A client with a history of coronary artery disease (CAD) is admitted with chest pain. Which diagnostic test should the nurse anticipate preparing the client for first?
- A. Electrocardiogram (ECG)
- B. Chest X-ray
- C. Arterial blood gases (ABGs)
- D. Echocardiogram
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Electrocardiogram (ECG). An electrocardiogram should be performed first to assess for cardiac ischemia in a client with a history of CAD and chest pain. An ECG provides immediate information about the heart's electrical activity, helping to identify signs of ischemia or a heart attack. While other diagnostic tests like chest X-ray, arterial blood gases, and echocardiogram may also be necessary in the evaluation of chest pain, they do not provide the initial direct assessment of cardiac ischemia that an ECG does.
2. A client with diabetes mellitus is admitted with a blood glucose level of 640 mg/dl and is unresponsive. Which intervention should the nurse implement first?
- A. Administer 50% dextrose IV push
- B. Administer IV fluids as prescribed
- C. Check the client's blood glucose level
- D. Prepare the client for immediate dialysis
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Administering IV fluids as prescribed is the priority intervention in a client with a blood glucose level of 640 mg/dl and unresponsiveness. Severe hyperglycemia can lead to dehydration and electrolyte imbalances, and administering IV fluids can help manage hyperglycemia and prevent further complications. Administering dextrose IV push (Choice A) can exacerbate hyperglycemia in this scenario. Checking the client's blood glucose level (Choice C) is important but not the immediate priority when the client is unresponsive. Immediate dialysis (Choice D) is not indicated as the first intervention for hyperglycemia.
3. The nurse is preparing a community education program on osteoporosis. Which instruction is helpful in preventing bone loss and promoting bone formation?
- A. Recommend weight-bearing physical activity.
- B. Encourage a diet high in dairy products.
- C. Suggest vitamin D supplementation.
- D. Advise avoiding caffeine and alcohol.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Recommend weight-bearing physical activity. Weight-bearing exercises are effective in maintaining bone density and preventing osteoporosis by promoting bone formation. Encouraging a diet high in dairy products (choice B) can provide calcium, but it's not as directly related to bone formation as physical activity. While vitamin D supplementation (choice C) is important for calcium absorption and bone health, it is not directly involved in promoting bone formation. Advising to avoid caffeine and alcohol (choice D) can be beneficial for bone health, but it is not as directly related to promoting bone formation as weight-bearing physical activity.
4. The charge nurse of the critical care unit informed at the beginning of the shift that a less than optimal number of registered nurses would be working that shift. In planning assignments, which client should receive the most care hours by a registered nurse?
- A. A 34-year-old admitted today after an emergency appendectomy who has a peripheral intravenous catheter and a Foley catheter.
- B. A 48-year-old marathon runner with a central venous catheter experiencing nausea and vomiting due to electrolyte disturbance following a race.
- C. A 63-year-old chain smoker with chronic bronchitis receiving oxygen via nasal cannula and a saline-locked peripheral intravenous catheter.
- D. An 82-year-old client with Alzheimer's disease and a newly fractured femur with a Foley catheter and soft wrist restraints applied.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The 82-year-old client with Alzheimer's disease and a newly fractured femur should receive the most care hours by a registered nurse because they are at the highest risk for injury and complications. The client's age, diagnosis of Alzheimer's disease, and the presence of a newly fractured femur along with the Foley catheter and wrist restraints indicate a need for close monitoring and care. Choice A is less critical as the client is stable post-appendectomy. Choice B, though experiencing symptoms, is not at the same level of risk as the client in Choice D. Choice C, while requiring oxygen support, does not have the same level of acuity and complexity as the client in Choice D.
5. A client with a history of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is admitted with pneumonia. Which assessment finding requires immediate intervention?
- A. Oxygen saturation of 90%
- B. Respiratory rate of 24 breaths per minute
- C. Use of accessory muscles
- D. Inspiratory crackles
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Use of accessory muscles. In a client with COPD and pneumonia, the use of accessory muscles indicates increased work of breathing and may signal respiratory failure. Immediate intervention is necessary to prevent further deterioration of the respiratory status. Choice A, an oxygen saturation of 90%, though low, may not require immediate intervention as it is above the typical threshold for initiating supplemental oxygen. Choice B, a respiratory rate of 24 breaths per minute, falls within the normal range for an adult and may not be an immediate cause for concern. Choice D, inspiratory crackles, are indicative of fluid in the lungs but may not require immediate intervention unless accompanied by other concerning signs like decreased oxygen saturation or increased respiratory distress.
Similar Questions
Access More Features
HESI RN Basic
$69.99/ 30 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All HESI courses Coverage
- 30 days access
HESI RN Premium
$149.99/ 90 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All HESI courses Coverage
- 30 days access