HESI RN
HESI Medical Surgical Practice Exam
1. A client with a history of peptic ulcer disease (PUD) is admitted after vomiting bright red blood several times over the course of 2 hours. In reviewing the laboratory results, the nurse finds the client's hemoglobin is 12 g/dL (120g/L) and the hematocrit is 35% (0.35). Which action should the nurse prepare to take?
- A. Continue monitoring for blood loss
- B. Administer 1,000 mL (1L) of normal saline
- C. Transfuse 2 units of platelets
- D. Prepare the client for emergency surgery
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is to prepare the client for emergency surgery. The client's presentation with bright red blood in vomitus suggests active bleeding, which is a medical emergency. With a hemoglobin of 12 g/dL and a hematocrit of 35%, the client is likely experiencing significant blood loss that may require surgical intervention to address the source of bleeding. Continuing to monitor for blood loss (Choice A) is not appropriate in this acute situation where immediate action is necessary. Administering normal saline (Choice B) may help with fluid resuscitation but does not address the underlying cause of bleeding. Transfusing platelets (Choice C) is not indicated in this scenario as platelets are involved in clot formation and are not the primary treatment for active bleeding in this context.
2. What information will the nurse provide when counseling a patient starting a sulfonamide drug for a urinary tract infection?
- A. Drink several quarts of water daily.
- B. If stomach upset occurs, avoid taking antacids.
- C. Limit sun exposure to avoid skin reactions.
- D. Report any sore throat promptly.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Drink several quarts of water daily. This advice aims to prevent crystalluria, a potential side effect of sulfonamide drugs. Option B is incorrect because antacids should not be taken with sulfonamides as they can decrease drug absorption. Option C is incorrect as sulfonamides can increase sensitivity to sunlight, not requiring sun exposure limitations but sun protection measures. Option D is incorrect because a sore throat could indicate a more serious adverse effect and should be promptly reported for evaluation.
3. During a paracentesis procedure on a client with abdominal ascites, into which position would the nurse assist the client?
- A. Supine
- B. Upright
- C. Left side-lying
- D. Right side-lying
Correct answer: B
Rationale: During a paracentesis procedure for a client with abdominal ascites, the nurse should assist the client into an upright position. Placing the client upright allows the intestines to float posteriorly, reducing the risk of intestinal laceration during catheter insertion. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because a supine, left side-lying, or right side-lying position would not provide the same benefit of intestinal mobility and protection during the procedure.
4. A client with Diabetes Insipidus (DI) is being cared for by a nurse. Which data warrants the most immediate intervention by the nurse?
- A. Serum sodium of 185 mEq/L (185 mmol/L)
- B. Dry skin with poor skin turgor
- C. Apical rate of 110 beats per minute
- D. Polyuria and excessive thirst
Correct answer: A
Rationale: A serum sodium level of 185 mEq/L (185 mmol/L) is dangerously high and indicates severe dehydration, requiring immediate intervention to prevent neurological damage. The other options are not as critical as high serum sodium levels, which can lead to serious complications such as seizures, coma, and death if not promptly addressed. Dry skin with poor skin turgor and polyuria with excessive thirst are common findings in clients with Diabetes Insipidus and should be managed but do not pose an immediate threat to the client's life. An apical heart rate of 110 beats per minute may indicate tachycardia, which could be related to dehydration but is not as urgent as addressing the severe hypernatremia.
5. A healthcare professional assesses clients on the medical-surgical unit. Which client is at greatest risk for the development of bacterial cystitis?
- A. A 36-year-old female who has never been pregnant
- B. A 42-year-old male who is prescribed cyclophosphamide
- C. A 58-year-old female who is not taking estrogen replacement
- D. A 77-year-old male with mild congestive heart failure
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Females are at higher risk of developing bacterial cystitis due to their shorter urethra compared to males. Postmenopausal women not on estrogen replacement therapy are particularly susceptible to cystitis because of changes in vaginal and urethral cells. This increases the risk of bacterial infection. The other options do not have the same level of risk as the postmenopausal woman not using hormone replacement therapy. A never-pregnant middle-aged woman does not have the same increased risk as a postmenopausal woman with hormonal changes.
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