HESI RN
HESI RN Exit Exam 2024 Quizlet
1. The nurse is assessing a client with chronic kidney disease (CKD) who is receiving erythropoietin therapy. Which laboratory value should the nurse monitor closely?
- A. Serum potassium level
- B. Hemoglobin level
- C. White blood cell count
- D. Serum calcium level
Correct answer: A
Rationale: In a client with chronic kidney disease (CKD) receiving erythropoietin therapy, the nurse should closely monitor the serum potassium level. Erythropoietin therapy can increase red blood cell production, leading to a higher demand for potassium. Monitoring potassium levels is crucial to prevent hyperkalemia, a potential risk associated with this therapy. Hemoglobin level (Choice B) is important to assess the effectiveness of erythropoietin therapy, but monitoring potassium levels takes precedence due to the risk of hyperkalemia. White blood cell count (Choice C) and serum calcium level (Choice D) are not directly affected by erythropoietin therapy in the context of chronic kidney disease.
2. In caring for a client with a PCA infusion of morphine sulfate through the right cephalic vein, the nurse assesses that the client is lethargic with a blood pressure of 90/60, pulse rate of 118 beats per minute, and respiratory rate of 8 breaths per minute. What assessment should the nurse perform next?
- A. Note the appearance and patency of the client's peripheral IV site.
- B. Palpate the volume of the client's right radial pulse.
- C. Auscultate the client's breath sounds bilaterally.
- D. Observe the amount and dose of morphine in the PCA pump syringe.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: In this scenario, the nurse is dealing with a lethargic client with concerning vital signs after a PCA infusion of morphine sulfate. The next assessment the nurse should perform is to observe the amount and dose of morphine in the PCA pump syringe. This is crucial to evaluate for possible overdose, as the client's symptoms could be indicative of opioid toxicity. Checking the morphine amount and dose will help the nurse adjust the treatment accordingly. Choices A, B, and C do not directly address the potential cause of the client's lethargy and abnormal vital signs related to the morphine infusion.
3. A male client with an antisocial personality disorder is admitted to an inpatient mental health unit for multiple substance dependencies. When providing a history, the client justifies to the nurse his use of illicit drugs. Based on this pattern of behavior, this client's history is most likely to include which finding?
- A. Multiple convictions for misdemeanors and class B felonies.
- B. A history of stable employment
- C. Strong relationships with family members
- D. A pattern of seeking help when needed
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Multiple convictions for misdemeanors and class B felonies. Clients with antisocial personality disorder often engage in behaviors that disregard societal rules and norms, leading to legal issues and criminal activities. This behavior is characteristic of individuals with antisocial personality disorder. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because individuals with this disorder are less likely to have stable employment, strong family relationships, or seek help when needed due to their pattern of defiance and disregard for authority and rules.
4. A male client is admitted with a bowel obstruction and intractable vomiting for the last several hours despite the use of antiemetics. Which intervention should the nurse implement first?
- A. Infuse 0.9% sodium chloride 500 ml bolus
- B. Administer an antiemetic intravenously
- C. Insert a nasogastric tube
- D. Prepare the client for surgery
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct first intervention for a male client with a bowel obstruction and intractable vomiting is to infuse 0.9% sodium chloride 500 ml bolus. This intervention is crucial to address the risk of hypovolemia due to excessive vomiting. Administering intravenous fluids will help prevent dehydration, maintain blood pressure, and stabilize the client's condition. Choice B, administering an antiemetic intravenously, may not be effective as the client has already been unresponsive to antiemetics orally. Choice C, inserting a nasogastric tube, may be necessary but is not the priority in this situation. Choice D, preparing the client for surgery, should only be considered after stabilizing the client's fluid and electrolyte balance.
5. When a client with a history of atrial fibrillation is admitted with a new onset of confusion, which diagnostic test should the nurse anticipate preparing the client for first?
- A. Electrocardiogram (ECG)
- B. Chest X-ray
- C. Arterial blood gases (ABGs)
- D. Echocardiogram
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is an Electrocardiogram (ECG). When a client with a history of atrial fibrillation presents with new-onset confusion, an ECG is crucial to assess for cardiac ischemia, which could be a potential cause of the confusion. A chest X-ray (Choice B) is not typically the first-line diagnostic test for evaluating confusion in a client with atrial fibrillation. Arterial blood gases (ABGs) (Choice C) are more useful in assessing oxygenation and acid-base balance rather than the cause of confusion in this scenario. While an echocardiogram (Choice D) provides valuable information about cardiac structure and function, it is usually not the initial diagnostic test needed in the evaluation of acute confusion in a client with atrial fibrillation.
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