HESI RN
HESI RN Exit Exam 2024 Quizlet
1. The nurse is assessing a client with chronic kidney disease (CKD) who is receiving erythropoietin therapy. Which laboratory value should the nurse monitor closely?
- A. Serum potassium level
- B. Hemoglobin level
- C. White blood cell count
- D. Serum calcium level
Correct answer: A
Rationale: In a client with chronic kidney disease (CKD) receiving erythropoietin therapy, the nurse should closely monitor the serum potassium level. Erythropoietin therapy can increase red blood cell production, leading to a higher demand for potassium. Monitoring potassium levels is crucial to prevent hyperkalemia, a potential risk associated with this therapy. Hemoglobin level (Choice B) is important to assess the effectiveness of erythropoietin therapy, but monitoring potassium levels takes precedence due to the risk of hyperkalemia. White blood cell count (Choice C) and serum calcium level (Choice D) are not directly affected by erythropoietin therapy in the context of chronic kidney disease.
2. During the initial newborn assessment, the nurse finds that a newborn's heart rate is irregular. Which intervention should the nurse implement?
- A. Notify the pediatrician immediately.
- B. Teach the parents about congenital heart defects.
- C. Document the finding in the infant's record.
- D. Apply oxygen via nasal cannula at 3 L/min.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct intervention when a nurse finds an irregular heart rate in a newborn is to document the finding in the infant's record. An irregular heart rate is a common occurrence in newborns and does not necessarily require immediate medical intervention. Notifying the pediatrician immediately is unnecessary unless there are other concerning symptoms. Teaching the parents about congenital heart defects is not the priority in this situation. Applying oxygen via nasal cannula at 3 L/min is not indicated for an irregular heart rate without further assessment or medical indication.
3. A male client with rheumatoid arthritis is scheduled for a procedure in the morning. The procedure cannot be completed due to early morning stiffness. Which intervention should the nurse implement?
- A. Assign a UAP to assist the client with a warm shower early in the morning.
- B. Administer anti-inflammatory medication before the procedure.
- C. Encourage the client to perform range-of-motion exercises.
- D. Reschedule the procedure for later in the day.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: A warm shower can help alleviate stiffness, allowing the client to be more comfortable and mobile before the procedure. This intervention promotes increased comfort and mobility, which may help the client proceed with the procedure later in the day. Administering anti-inflammatory medication (Choice B) may be helpful but may take time to be effective, while range-of-motion exercises (Choice C) may be challenging for the client due to stiffness. Rescheduling the procedure (Choice D) does not address the immediate need to alleviate stiffness.
4. The nurse is caring for a client with diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA). Which laboratory value requires immediate intervention?
- A. Serum glucose of 300 mg/dL
- B. Serum potassium of 4.5 mEq/L
- C. Serum bicarbonate of 15 mEq/L
- D. Serum pH of 7.28
Correct answer: D
Rationale: A serum pH of 7.28 indicates metabolic acidosis in a client with diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA), requiring immediate intervention. In DKA, the body produces excess ketones, leading to acidosis. Monitoring and correcting the pH level is crucial in managing DKA. Serum glucose levels may be high in DKA, but the immediate concern is correcting the acidosis to prevent complications. Serum potassium and bicarbonate levels are also important but not as immediately critical as correcting the acidosis in DKA.
5. A client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is admitted with an exacerbation. Which assessment finding is most concerning?
- A. Oxygen saturation of 90%
- B. Respiratory rate of 24 breaths per minute
- C. Use of accessory muscles
- D. Inspiratory crackles
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. Use of accessory muscles is the most concerning finding in a client with COPD experiencing an exacerbation. This indicates increased work of breathing and can be a sign of respiratory failure, requiring immediate intervention. Oxygen saturation of 90% is low but not as concerning as the increased work of breathing. A respiratory rate of 24 breaths per minute can be within normal limits. Inspiratory crackles may be present in COPD due to airway inflammation but are not as concerning as the use of accessory muscles.
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