HESI RN
HESI RN Exit Exam 2024 Quizlet
1. The nurse is assessing a client with chronic kidney disease (CKD) who is receiving erythropoietin therapy. Which laboratory value should the nurse monitor closely?
- A. Serum potassium level
- B. Hemoglobin level
- C. White blood cell count
- D. Serum calcium level
Correct answer: A
Rationale: In a client with chronic kidney disease (CKD) receiving erythropoietin therapy, the nurse should closely monitor the serum potassium level. Erythropoietin therapy can increase red blood cell production, leading to a higher demand for potassium. Monitoring potassium levels is crucial to prevent hyperkalemia, a potential risk associated with this therapy. Hemoglobin level (Choice B) is important to assess the effectiveness of erythropoietin therapy, but monitoring potassium levels takes precedence due to the risk of hyperkalemia. White blood cell count (Choice C) and serum calcium level (Choice D) are not directly affected by erythropoietin therapy in the context of chronic kidney disease.
2. A client with a history of hypertension is prescribed a beta-blocker. Which client statement indicates that further teaching is needed?
- A. ‘I will take my medication in the morning before breakfast.’
- B. ‘I should avoid eating foods high in potassium.’
- C. ‘I should change positions slowly to avoid dizziness.’
- D. ‘I should avoid abrupt discontinuation of the medication.’
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: ‘I should avoid eating foods high in potassium.’ This statement indicates a misunderstanding as beta-blockers do not typically affect potassium levels. The other choices (A, C, and D) are all appropriate statements for a client prescribed a beta-blocker. Choice A shows understanding of the timing of medication administration, choice C addresses orthostatic hypotension concerns, and choice D highlights the importance of not abruptly stopping the medication to prevent adverse effects.
3. A client is receiving a full-strength continuous enteral tube feeding at 50 ml/hour and has developed diarrhea. The client has a new prescription to change the feeding to half strength. What intervention should the nurse implement?
- A. Add equal amounts of water and feeding to a feeding bag and infuse at 50 ml/hour
- B. Continue the full-strength feeding after decreasing the rate of infusion to 25 ml/hour
- C. Maintain the present feeding until diarrhea subsides and then begin the new prescription
- D. Withhold any further feeding until clarifying the prescription with the healthcare provider
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct intervention is to dilute the formula by adding equal amounts of water and feeding to a feeding bag and infusing it at 50 ml/hour. This can help alleviate the diarrhea that has developed. Diarrhea can occur as a complication of enteral tube feeding and can be due to a variety of causes, including hyperosmolar formula. Choice B is incorrect as continuing the full-strength feeding, even at a lower rate, may not address the issue of diarrhea. Choice C is incorrect because it is important to follow the new prescription to manage the diarrhea effectively. Choice D is incorrect as withholding feeding without taking appropriate action may delay necessary intervention.
4. A client with a history of myocardial infarction is admitted with chest pain. Which laboratory value should the nurse monitor closely?
- A. White blood cell count
- B. Serum creatinine
- C. Troponin level
- D. Hemoglobin level
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Troponin level. Troponin levels should be closely monitored in a client with chest pain and a history of myocardial infarction to assess for ongoing myocardial injury. Troponin is a specific marker for myocardial damage. Monitoring white blood cell count (choice A) is not directly related to myocardial infarction. Serum creatinine (choice B) is more indicative of renal function rather than cardiac status. Hemoglobin level (choice D) is important but does not directly reflect ongoing myocardial injury.
5. After a sudden loss of consciousness, a female client is taken to the ED, and the initial assessment indicates that her blood glucose level is critically low. Once her glucose level is stabilized, the client reports that she was recently diagnosed with anorexia nervosa and is being treated at an outpatient clinic. Which intervention is most important to include in this client's discharge plan?
- A. Describe the signs and symptoms of hypoglycemia.
- B. Encourage a low-carbohydrate and high-protein diet.
- C. Reinforce the need to continue outpatient treatment.
- D. Suggest wearing a medical alert bracelet at all times.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Encouraging a low-carbohydrate and high-protein diet is crucial for a client recovering from anorexia nervosa to prevent hypoglycemic episodes. Choice A is not the most important intervention at this point since the client is already aware of hypoglycemia based on the recent event. Choice C is important but not the priority in this situation where dietary intervention is crucial. Choice D, suggesting a medical alert bracelet, is not as essential as ensuring proper nutrition to prevent further hypoglycemic episodes.
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