Nursing Elites

1. The nurse is assessing a client with chronic kidney disease (CKD) who is receiving erythropoietin therapy. Which laboratory value should the nurse monitor closely?

• A. Serum potassium level
• B. Hemoglobin level
• C. White blood cell count
• D. Serum calcium level

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In a client with chronic kidney disease (CKD) receiving erythropoietin therapy, the nurse should closely monitor the serum potassium level. Erythropoietin therapy can increase red blood cell production, leading to a higher demand for potassium. Monitoring potassium levels is crucial to prevent hyperkalemia, a potential risk associated with this therapy. Hemoglobin level (Choice B) is important to assess the effectiveness of erythropoietin therapy, but monitoring potassium levels takes precedence due to the risk of hyperkalemia. White blood cell count (Choice C) and serum calcium level (Choice D) are not directly affected by erythropoietin therapy in the context of chronic kidney disease.

2. A client with chronic kidney disease (CKD) is admitted with hyperkalemia. Which assessment finding is most concerning?

• A. Bradycardia
• B. Muscle weakness
• C. Peaked T waves on the ECG
• D. Decreased deep tendon reflexes

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Peaked T waves on the ECG. In hyperkalemia, elevated potassium levels can affect the heart's electrical activity, leading to changes on the ECG such as peaked T waves. This finding is concerning as it can progress to serious cardiac arrhythmias, including ventricular tachycardia and fibrillation. Bradycardia (choice A) and decreased deep tendon reflexes (choice D) are not typically associated with hyperkalemia. While muscle weakness (choice B) can occur in hyperkalemia due to its effect on neuromuscular function, the most concerning assessment finding indicating the need for immediate intervention in this scenario is peaked T waves on the ECG.

3. The nurse is caring for a client with a history of myocardial infarction who is complaining of chest pain. Which intervention should the nurse implement first?

• A. Administer oxygen therapy as prescribed.
• B. Administer nitroglycerin sublingually as prescribed.
• C. Obtain an electrocardiogram (ECG).
• D. Assess the client's level of consciousness.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Obtaining an electrocardiogram (ECG) is the first priority in assessing for ischemia or infarction in a client with chest pain and a history of myocardial infarction. This diagnostic test provides crucial information about the heart's electrical activity and helps in identifying any acute cardiac changes. Administering oxygen therapy and nitroglycerin can be important interventions, but obtaining an ECG takes precedence as it directly assesses the client's cardiac status. Assessing the client's level of consciousness is also essential, but in this scenario, assessing for cardiac indications through an ECG is the initial step.

4. A client who received multiple antihypertensive medications experiences syncope due to a drop in blood pressure to 70/40. What is the rationale for the nurse's decision to hold the client's scheduled antihypertensive medication?

• A. Increased urinary clearance of the multiple medications has produced diuresis and lowered the blood pressure
• B. The antagonistic interaction among the various blood pressure medications has reduced their effectiveness
• C. The additive effect of multiple medications has caused the blood pressure to drop too low.
• D. The synergistic effect of the multiple medications has resulted in drug toxicity and resulting hypotension.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: When medications with a similar action are administered, an additive effect occurs that is the sum of the effects of each medication. In this case, several medications that all lower blood pressure, when administered together, resulted in hypotension.

5. A client is admitted with a diagnosis of septic shock. Which clinical finding requires immediate intervention?

• A. Blood pressure of 90/60 mmHg
• B. Temperature of 100.4°F
• C. Heart rate of 120 beats per minute
• D. Urine output of 30 ml/hour

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In a client with septic shock, a heart rate of 120 beats per minute is a critical clinical finding that requires immediate intervention. A rapid heart rate can indicate worsening sepsis and inadequate tissue perfusion. Correcting the underlying cause of the tachycardia and stabilizing the heart rate is crucial in managing septic shock. The other options, while important, do not represent an immediate threat to the patient's condition. A blood pressure of 90/60 mmHg may be expected in septic shock, a temperature of 100.4°F is mildly elevated, and a urine output of 30 ml/hour, though decreased, may not be an immediate concern in the context of septic shock.

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