Nursing Elites

1. The nurse is assessing a client with chronic kidney disease (CKD) who is receiving erythropoietin therapy. Which laboratory value should the nurse monitor closely?

• A. Serum potassium level
• B. Hemoglobin level
• C. White blood cell count
• D. Serum calcium level

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In a client with chronic kidney disease (CKD) receiving erythropoietin therapy, the nurse should closely monitor the serum potassium level. Erythropoietin therapy can increase red blood cell production, leading to a higher demand for potassium. Monitoring potassium levels is crucial to prevent hyperkalemia, a potential risk associated with this therapy. Hemoglobin level (Choice B) is important to assess the effectiveness of erythropoietin therapy, but monitoring potassium levels takes precedence due to the risk of hyperkalemia. White blood cell count (Choice C) and serum calcium level (Choice D) are not directly affected by erythropoietin therapy in the context of chronic kidney disease.

2. The nurse is assessing the thorax and lungs of a client who is experiencing respiratory difficulty. Which finding is most indicative of respiratory distress?

• A. Contractions of the sternocleidomastoid muscle.
• B. Respiratory rate of 20 breaths/min
• C. Downward movement of diaphragm with inspiration
• D. A pulse oximetry reading of SpO2 95%

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Contractions of the sternocleidomastoid muscle. Contractions of the sternocleidomastoid muscle suggest that the client is using accessory muscles to breathe, which is a clear sign of respiratory distress. This finding indicates that the client is working harder to breathe, typically seen in conditions like asthma, COPD, or respiratory failure. Choices B, C, and D are not the most indicative of respiratory distress. A respiratory rate of 20 breaths/min falls within the normal range. Downward movement of the diaphragm with inspiration is a normal finding indicating effective diaphragmatic breathing. A pulse oximetry reading of SpO2 95% is within the normal range and does not necessarily indicate respiratory distress.

3. A 65-year-old male client with a history of smoking and high cholesterol is admitted with shortness of breath and chest pain. Which diagnostic test should the nurse anticipate preparing the client for first?

• A. Electrocardiogram (ECG)
• B. Chest X-ray
• C. Arterial blood gases (ABGs)
• D. Pulmonary function tests (PFTs)

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is an Electrocardiogram (ECG). An ECG should be performed first to assess for cardiac ischemia, especially given the client's symptoms and history. Chest X-ray (Choice B) may be ordered to evaluate the lungs but would not be the initial test for this client presenting with chest pain and shortness of breath. Arterial blood gases (ABGs) (Choice C) are used to assess oxygenation and acid-base balance but are not the primary diagnostic test for a client with suspected cardiac issues. Pulmonary function tests (PFTs) (Choice D) are used to assess lung function and would not be the first test indicated in this scenario.

4. A client with hypertension receives a prescription for enalapril, an angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitor. Which instruction should the nurse include in the medication teaching plan?

• A. Increase intake of potassium-rich foods.
• B. Report increased bruising or bleeding.
• C. Stop medication if a cough develops.
• D. Limit intake of leafy green vegetables.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct instruction for the nurse to include in the medication teaching plan is to 'Report increased bruising or bleeding.' ACE inhibitors can cause thrombocytopenia, which lowers platelet count and increases the risk of bruising and bleeding. Choice A is incorrect because while ACE inhibitors may cause potassium levels to increase, the instruction should not be to increase intake of potassium-rich foods without healthcare provider guidance. Choice C is incorrect because a cough is a common side effect of ACE inhibitors due to bradykinin accumulation, and stopping the medication abruptly is not recommended without consulting the healthcare provider. Choice D is incorrect because there is no need to limit intake of leafy green vegetables specifically with ACE inhibitors; however, consistent intake of vitamin K-rich foods is recommended to maintain a stable INR for clients taking anticoagulants.

5. A nurse is caring for a client with an indwelling urinary catheter. Which intervention is most important to include in the client's plan of care?

• A. Ensure the catheter is below the level of the bladder at all times.
• B. Change the catheter bag every 48 hours.
• C. Cleanse the perineal area daily.
• D. Perform catheter care daily.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to ensure the catheter is always below the level of the bladder. Placing the catheter tubing above the level of the bladder can lead to backflow of urine, causing urinary tract infections. Changing the catheter bag every 48 hours is important but not as crucial as maintaining proper catheter positioning. Cleaning the perineal area daily and performing catheter care are essential tasks but do not directly address the prevention of complications associated with catheter placement.

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