the nurse is assessing a client with chronic kidney disease ckd who is receiving erythropoietin therapy which laboratory value should the nurse monito
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HESI RN

HESI RN Exit Exam 2024 Quizlet

1. The nurse is assessing a client with chronic kidney disease (CKD) who is receiving erythropoietin therapy. Which laboratory value should the nurse monitor closely?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In a client with chronic kidney disease (CKD) receiving erythropoietin therapy, the nurse should closely monitor the serum potassium level. Erythropoietin therapy can increase red blood cell production, leading to a higher demand for potassium. Monitoring potassium levels is crucial to prevent hyperkalemia, a potential risk associated with this therapy. Hemoglobin level (Choice B) is important to assess the effectiveness of erythropoietin therapy, but monitoring potassium levels takes precedence due to the risk of hyperkalemia. White blood cell count (Choice C) and serum calcium level (Choice D) are not directly affected by erythropoietin therapy in the context of chronic kidney disease.

2. A client with chronic liver disease is admitted with ascites and jaundice. Which assessment finding is most concerning?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Confusion and altered mental status are concerning in a client with chronic liver disease, as they may indicate hepatic encephalopathy, a serious complication that requires immediate intervention. Enlarged spleen (choice A) can be a common finding in liver disease due to portal hypertension but may not be as acute as hepatic encephalopathy. Increased abdominal girth (choice B) is typically seen in ascites, which is already present in this client. Yellowing of the skin (choice C) is a manifestation of jaundice, also a known symptom in liver disease but not as acute as confusion and altered mental status.

3. What is the first action the nurse should implement for a client admitted with acute pancreatitis?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Placing the client on NPO status is the priority action for a client with acute pancreatitis. This step is crucial to rest the pancreas, prevent pancreatic stimulation, and decrease enzyme production. By withholding oral intake, the digestive system is given a chance to rest and recover. Administering intravenous fluids may be necessary but should come after placing the client on NPO status. Pain medication can be administered once the client is stabilized. Assessing the client's abdomen for distention is important but is not the initial priority in managing acute pancreatitis.

4. While auscultating a client's heart sounds, which description should the nurse use to document a swishing sound related to blood turbulence or valvular defect?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is 'C: Murmur.' A murmur is auscultated as a swishing sound associated with blood turbulence caused by the heart or a valvular defect. Choices 'A: S1 S2' and 'B: S1 S2 S3' refer to normal heart sounds, specifically the closure of heart valves. 'D: Pericardial friction rub' is a dry, rubbing or grating sound caused by inflammation of the pericardial sac and is not associated with blood flow or valvular issues.

5. A client with a history of angina pectoris is prescribed sublingual nitroglycerin. Which client statement indicates that further teaching is needed?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Sublingual nitroglycerin should not be taken with water, as it needs to dissolve under the tongue to be effective. Option B is correct as the client should take nitroglycerin as soon as they feel chest pain. Option C is correct as up to three doses can be taken if needed. Option D is correct as the client should seek emergency help if chest pain does not improve after the first dose.

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