the nurse is assessing a client with chronic kidney disease ckd who is receiving erythropoietin therapy which laboratory value should the nurse monito
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HESI RN

HESI RN Exit Exam 2024 Quizlet

1. The nurse is assessing a client with chronic kidney disease (CKD) who is receiving erythropoietin therapy. Which laboratory value should the nurse monitor closely?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In a client with chronic kidney disease (CKD) receiving erythropoietin therapy, the nurse should closely monitor the serum potassium level. Erythropoietin therapy can increase red blood cell production, leading to a higher demand for potassium. Monitoring potassium levels is crucial to prevent hyperkalemia, a potential risk associated with this therapy. Hemoglobin level (Choice B) is important to assess the effectiveness of erythropoietin therapy, but monitoring potassium levels takes precedence due to the risk of hyperkalemia. White blood cell count (Choice C) and serum calcium level (Choice D) are not directly affected by erythropoietin therapy in the context of chronic kidney disease.

2. A client who is taking an oral dose of a tetracycline complains of gastrointestinal upset. What snack should the nurse instruct the client to take with the tetracycline?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Toasted wheat bread and jelly. Dairy products decrease the effect of tetracycline, so the nurse should instruct the client to avoid them. Toast, which contains no dairy products, may help decrease gastrointestinal symptoms. Choices A, B, and C contain dairy products, which should be avoided when taking tetracycline.

3. The nurse is assisting the mother of a child with phenylketonuria (PKU) to select foods that are in keeping with the child's dietary restrictions. Which foods are contraindicated for this child?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Foods sweetened with aspartame. Aspartame should not be consumed by a child with PKU because it is converted to phenylalanine in the body, which can be harmful to individuals with PKU. Choice A (Wheat products) is not specifically contraindicated for PKU. Choice C (High-fat foods) and Choice D (High-calorie foods) are not typically restricted in PKU diets unless they contain high levels of phenylalanine.

4. A client with a history of atrial fibrillation is prescribed warfarin (Coumadin). Which clinical finding is most concerning?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Headache. In a client with atrial fibrillation taking warfarin (Coumadin), a headache can be indicative of bleeding, which is a serious complication requiring immediate assessment and intervention. Monitoring for signs of bleeding is crucial when on anticoagulant therapy. Choices B, C, and D are not the most concerning. A prothrombin time of 15 seconds is within the therapeutic range for a client on warfarin, elevated liver enzymes may indicate liver dysfunction but are not directly related to the medication's side effects, and peripheral edema is not typically associated with warfarin use or atrial fibrillation in this context.

5. A client with a history of hypertension is admitted with a blood pressure of 200/110 mmHg. Which intervention should the nurse implement first?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is to obtain an arterial blood gas (ABG) sample. In a client with severe hypertension, it is essential to assess for metabolic or respiratory acidosis which can be done through an ABG sample. Administering antihypertensive medication without assessing the acid-base status of the client can lead to potential complications. Monitoring urine output and administering oxygen therapy are important interventions but are not the priority in this situation where the focus should be on assessing acidosis.

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