HESI RN
HESI RN Exit Exam 2024 Quizlet
1. The nurse is assessing a client with chronic kidney disease (CKD) who is receiving erythropoietin therapy. Which laboratory value should the nurse monitor closely?
- A. Serum potassium level
- B. Hemoglobin level
- C. White blood cell count
- D. Serum calcium level
Correct answer: A
Rationale: In a client with chronic kidney disease (CKD) receiving erythropoietin therapy, the nurse should closely monitor the serum potassium level. Erythropoietin therapy can increase red blood cell production, leading to a higher demand for potassium. Monitoring potassium levels is crucial to prevent hyperkalemia, a potential risk associated with this therapy. Hemoglobin level (Choice B) is important to assess the effectiveness of erythropoietin therapy, but monitoring potassium levels takes precedence due to the risk of hyperkalemia. White blood cell count (Choice C) and serum calcium level (Choice D) are not directly affected by erythropoietin therapy in the context of chronic kidney disease.
2. An adult female client with chronic kidney disease (CKD) asks the nurse if she can continue taking her over-the-counter medications. Which medication poses the greatest threat to this client?
- A. Magnesium hydroxide (Maalox).
- B. Birth control pills.
- C. Cough syrup containing codeine.
- D. Cold medication containing alcohol.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A, Magnesium hydroxide (Maalox). In clients with chronic kidney disease (CKD), magnesium can accumulate to toxic levels as the kidneys are unable to excrete it efficiently. This can lead to hypermagnesemia, causing serious and potentially life-threatening complications. Birth control pills (choice B) are metabolized mainly by the liver and do not pose a significant threat to clients with CKD. Cough syrup containing codeine (choice C) should be used cautiously in CKD due to the risk of respiratory depression but does not pose as great a threat as magnesium accumulation. Cold medication containing alcohol (choice D) should be avoided in CKD but does not present the same level of danger as magnesium toxicity.
3. The nurse is assessing a female client's blood pressure because she reported feeling dizzy. The blood pressure cuff is inflated to 140 mm Hg and as soon as the cuff is deflated a Korotkoff sound is heard. Which intervention should the nurse implement next?
- A. Wait 1 minute and palpate the systolic pressure before auscultating again.
- B. Increase the inflation pressure by 20 mm Hg and measure again.
- C. Switch to a larger cuff and repeat the measurement.
- D. Document the finding as normal.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: If a Korotkoff sound is heard immediately upon deflation, it may indicate an inaccurate reading. Waiting and palpating the systolic pressure can help confirm the accuracy of the measurement. Choice A is the correct intervention because it allows the nurse to ensure the accuracy of the blood pressure reading. Choice B is incorrect as increasing the inflation pressure is not necessary in this situation. Choice C is also incorrect as switching to a larger cuff is not warranted based on the information provided. Choice D is incorrect because documenting the finding as normal without further verification could lead to inaccurate information.
4. After checking the fingerstick glucose at 1630, what action should be implemented?
- A. Notify the healthcare provider.
- B. Administer 8 units of insulin aspart SubQ.
- C. Give an IV bolus of Dextrose 50% 50 ml.
- D. Perform quality control on the glucometer.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Administering insulin aspart (rapid-acting insulin) is the appropriate action to manage the elevated glucose level of 1630. Choice A, notifying the healthcare provider, is not the immediate action needed for this glucose level. Choice C, giving an IV bolus of Dextrose 50%, would exacerbate hyperglycemia instead of treating it. Choice D, performing quality control on the glucometer, is not relevant to the management of the patient's glucose level at this time.
5. The nurse observes an unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) positioning a newly admitted client who has a seizure disorder. The client is supine, and the UAP is placing soft pillows along the side rails. What action should the nurse take?
- A. Ensure that the UAP has positioned the pillows effectively to protect the client.
- B. Instruct the UAP to obtain soft blankets to secure to the side rails instead of pillows.
- C. Assume responsibility for placing the pillows while the UAP completes another task.
- D. Ask the UAP to use some of the pillows to prop the client in a side-lying position.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The nurse should instruct the UAP to pad the side rails with soft blankets instead of pillows. Placing pillows along the side rails could lead to suffocation during a seizure and would need to be removed promptly. Instructing the UAP to use soft blankets is safer as they can help prevent injury without posing a risk of suffocation. Ensuring effective placement of the pillows (Choice A) is not appropriate as pillows should not be used in this situation. Assuming responsibility for placing the pillows (Choice C) or propping the client in a side-lying position with pillows (Choice D) are both unsafe actions and could potentially harm the client.
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