Nursing Elites

1. A male client is having abdominal pain after a left femoral angioplasty and stent, and is asking for additional pain medication for right lower quadrant pain (9/10). Two hours ago, he received hydrocodone/acetaminophen 7.5/325 mg. His vital signs are elevated from previous readings: temperature 97.8°F, heart rate 102 beats/minute, respiration 20 breaths/minute. His abdomen is swollen, the groin access site is tender, peripheral pulses are present, but the left is greater than the right. What data is needed to make this report complete?

• A. Client's lungs are clear bilaterally, and oxygen saturation is 97%.
• B. Surgeon needs to see the client immediately to evaluate the situation.
• C. Left peripheral pulses were present only by Doppler pre-procedure.
• D. Client's history includes multiple back surgeries and chronic pain.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. In this scenario, the client is experiencing abdominal pain after a left femoral angioplasty and stent, with signs of potential complications such as a swollen abdomen, tenderness at the groin access site, and unequal peripheral pulses. The client's vital signs are also elevated, indicating a worsening condition. Given these findings, the immediate evaluation by the surgeon is crucial to assess for serious complications like internal bleeding or ischemia. Choice A is incorrect as the focus should be on the urgent need for surgical evaluation rather than lung sounds and oxygen saturation. Choice C is irrelevant to the immediate management of the client's current situation. Choice D, while providing background information, is not essential for the urgent intervention required in this case.

2. The nurse is triaging several children as they present to the emergency room after an accident. Which child requires the most immediate intervention by the nurse?

• A. An 11-year-old with a headache, nausea, and projectile vomiting
• B. A 5-year-old with a broken arm
• C. A 7-year-old with minor abrasions
• D. A 9-year-old with a twisted ankle

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Projectile vomiting in a child with a headache could indicate increased intracranial pressure, requiring immediate attention. Choices B, C, and D do not present with symptoms indicating potentially life-threatening conditions that require urgent intervention.

3. While performing a skin inspection for a female adult client, the nurse observes a rash that is well circumscribed, has silvery scales and plaques, and is located on the elbows and knees. These assessment findings are likely to indicate which condition?

• A. Tinea corporis
• B. Herpes zoster
• C. Psoriasis
• D. Drug reaction

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C, Psoriasis. Psoriasis commonly presents with well-circumscribed, silvery scales and plaques, typically found on extensor surfaces like elbows and knees. Tinea corporis (A) presents as a circular rash, herpes zoster (B) presents as a painful rash following a dermatomal pattern, and drug reactions (D) have variable presentations not specific to elbows and knees with silvery scales and plaques.

4. The nurse is preparing a 50 ml dose of 50% dextrose IV for a client with insulin shock. What is the most immediate intervention by the nurse?

• A. Dilute the dextrose in one liter of 0.9% Normal Saline solution.
• B. Mix the dextrose in a 50 ml piggyback for a total volume of 100 ml.
• C. Push the undiluted dextrose slowly through the current IV infusion.
• D. Ask the pharmacist to add the dextrose to a TPN solution.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct immediate intervention by the nurse in this situation is to push the undiluted 50% dextrose slowly through the current IV infusion. This is because in cases of insulin shock, where the client has dangerously low blood sugar levels, administering 50% dextrose directly into the bloodstream helps rapidly increase blood glucose levels. Choice A is incorrect because diluting the dextrose in one liter of normal saline would delay the administration of glucose, which is needed urgently. Choice B is incorrect as mixing the dextrose in a piggyback solution would also delay the administration of the concentrated dextrose. Choice D is incorrect because adding dextrose to a TPN solution is not the immediate intervention needed to address the low blood sugar levels in a client experiencing insulin shock.

5. The nurse is assessing a client with left-sided heart failure. Which finding requires immediate intervention?

• A. Shortness of breath
• B. Jugular venous distention
• C. Crackles in the lungs
• D. Peripheral edema

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Crackles in the lungs indicate pulmonary congestion in a client with left-sided heart failure and require immediate intervention to prevent respiratory failure. Crackles suggest fluid accumulation in the lungs, leading to impaired gas exchange and potentially respiratory distress. Shortness of breath, jugular venous distention, and peripheral edema are common manifestations of heart failure but do not directly indicate acute respiratory compromise like crackles in the lungs do.

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