HESI RN
HESI RN Exit Exam 2024 Quizlet
1. For the past 24 hours, an antidiarrheal agent, diphenoxylate, has been administered to a bedridden, older client with infectious gastroenteritis. Which finding requires the nurse to take further action?
- A. Tented skin turgor
- B. Decreased bowel sounds
- C. Persistent diarrhea
- D. Dehydration
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. Tented skin turgor is a sign of dehydration, which can be exacerbated by the use of antidiarrheals in clients with gastroenteritis. In dehydration, the skin loses its elasticity and becomes less resilient when pinched. Therefore, the nurse should take immediate action upon noticing tented skin turgor to prevent further complications. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because decreased bowel sounds, persistent diarrhea, and dehydration are expected findings in a client with gastroenteritis who has been administered an antidiarrheal agent.
2. A client with a history of rheumatoid arthritis is prescribed prednisone. Which assessment finding requires immediate intervention?
- A. Increased joint pain
- B. Weight gain of 2 pounds in 24 hours
- C. Blood glucose level of 150 mg/dl
- D. Fever of 100.4°F
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. Weight gain of 2 pounds in 24 hours is concerning in a client with rheumatoid arthritis on prednisone as it may indicate fluid retention or worsening heart failure. Increased joint pain, blood glucose level of 150 mg/dl, and fever of 100.4°F are important assessments but do not require immediate intervention compared to the potential severity of rapid weight gain.
3. The nurse is assessing a client with chronic kidney disease (CKD) who is receiving erythropoietin therapy. Which clinical finding requires immediate intervention?
- A. Increased fatigue
- B. Elevated blood pressure
- C. Headache
- D. Elevated hemoglobin
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A, 'Increased fatigue.' In a client with CKD receiving erythropoietin therapy, increased fatigue can be a sign of polycythemia, a condition characterized by an elevated red blood cell count. This can lead to increased blood viscosity and raise the risk of thromboembolic events, necessitating immediate intervention. Elevated blood pressure (choice B) is a common concern in CKD but does not require immediate intervention in this context. Headache (choice C) may be related to elevated blood pressure but is not the most critical finding requiring immediate attention. Elevated hemoglobin (choice D) is an expected outcome of erythropoietin therapy and does not require immediate intervention unless excessively high.
4. When planning care for a 10-year-old child with pneumonia receiving oxygen at 5l/min per nasal cannula, what principle of oxygen administration should the nurse consider?
- A. Avoid administration of oxygen at high levels for extended periods.
- B. Increase oxygen flow rate if the child is still tachypneic.
- C. Reduce oxygen levels gradually after symptoms improve.
- D. Humidify the oxygen to prevent drying of mucous membranes.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct principle of oxygen administration to consider is to avoid administering oxygen at high levels for extended periods. High levels of oxygen for prolonged periods can lead to oxygen toxicity, especially in pediatric patients. Increasing the oxygen flow rate based on tachypnea may not be necessary and can potentially lead to oxygen toxicity. Gradually reducing oxygen levels after symptoms improve may compromise the child's oxygenation. While humidifying oxygen is important to prevent drying of mucous membranes, the primary concern in this case is to avoid high oxygen levels for an extended duration to prevent oxygen toxicity.
5. The nurse is assessing a client with a small bowel obstruction who was hospitalized 24 hours ago. Which assessment finding should the nurse report immediately to the healthcare provider?
- A. Hypoactive bowel sounds in the lower quadrant.
- B. Rebound tenderness in the upper quadrants.
- C. Tympany with percussion of the abdomen.
- D. Light-colored gastric aspirate via the nasogastric tube.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Rebound tenderness in the upper quadrants may indicate peritonitis, which requires prompt medical attention. Hypoactive bowel sounds are expected in small bowel obstruction and would not be a priority over signs of peritonitis. Tympany with percussion is a normal finding and not a cause for immediate concern. Light-colored gastric aspirate could indicate various issues but is not as urgent as peritonitis.
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