Nursing Elites

1. A client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is admitted with pneumonia. Which assessment finding is most concerning?

• A. Oxygen saturation of 90%
• B. Respiratory rate of 24 breaths per minute
• C. Use of accessory muscles
• D. Inspiratory crackles

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'Use of accessory muscles.' In a client with COPD and pneumonia, the use of accessory muscles indicates increased work of breathing. This finding is concerning as it may signal respiratory failure, requiring immediate intervention. Oxygen saturation of 90% (choice A) is low but not as immediately concerning as the increased work of breathing. A respiratory rate of 24 breaths per minute (choice B) is slightly elevated but not as critical as the use of accessory muscles. Inspiratory crackles (choice D) may be present in pneumonia but are not as indicative of impending respiratory failure as the increased work of breathing shown by the use of accessory muscles.

2. The healthcare provider is assessing a client with left-sided heart failure. Which laboratory value should be closely monitored?

• A. Serum sodium level
• B. Serum potassium level
• C. Serum creatinine level
• D. Serum glucose level

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In a client with left-sided heart failure, monitoring serum potassium levels is crucial. This helps in assessing kidney function and fluid balance. Elevated potassium levels can result from impaired kidney function, which is common in heart failure. Monitoring sodium levels (choice A) is important in heart failure but not specifically related to left-sided heart failure. Serum creatinine (choice C) reflects kidney function but is not the most critical value to monitor in this case. Serum glucose level (choice D) is important but not the priority when assessing left-sided heart failure.

3. A 3-year-old boy with a congenital heart defect is brought to the clinic by his mother. During the assessment, the mother asks the nurse why her child is at the 5th percentile for growth. What response is best for the nurse to provide?

• A. Does your child seem mentally slower than his peers also?
• B. His smaller size is probably due to the heart disease
• C. Haven't you been feeding him according to recommended daily allowances for children?
• D. You should not worry about the growth tables. They are only averages for children

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Heart disease can affect growth, leading to smaller size in children.

4. A client with a history of chronic kidney disease (CKD) is admitted with hyperkalemia. Which assessment finding requires immediate intervention?

• A. Peaked T waves on the ECG
• B. Bradycardia
• C. Decreased deep tendon reflexes
• D. Muscle weakness

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Peaked T waves on the ECG are a critical finding in hyperkalemia as they indicate potential life-threatening cardiac arrhythmias. Immediate intervention is necessary to prevent cardiac complications such as ventricular tachycardia or fibrillation. Bradycardia, decreased deep tendon reflexes, and muscle weakness are not typically associated with hyperkalemia and do not pose the same level of immediate risk to the client's life.

5. The nurse is caring for a client with acute pancreatitis who is receiving total parenteral nutrition (TPN). Which laboratory value should be monitored closely?

• A. Serum calcium
• B. Serum triglycerides
• C. Serum glucose
• D. Serum triglycerides

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Serum triglycerides should be monitored closely in a client receiving TPN as they may indicate hyperlipidemia, which is a potential complication of TPN. Monitoring serum triglycerides is essential to prevent complications such as hypertriglyceridemia. Serum calcium and glucose levels are also important to monitor in clients receiving TPN, but in this scenario, serum triglycerides take priority due to the risk of hyperlipidemia.

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