a client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease copd is admitted with pneumonia which assessment finding is most concerning
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Nursing Elites

HESI RN

RN HESI Exit Exam

1. A client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is admitted with pneumonia. Which assessment finding is most concerning?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'Use of accessory muscles.' In a client with COPD and pneumonia, the use of accessory muscles indicates increased work of breathing. This finding is concerning as it may signal respiratory failure, requiring immediate intervention. Oxygen saturation of 90% (choice A) is low but not as immediately concerning as the increased work of breathing. A respiratory rate of 24 breaths per minute (choice B) is slightly elevated but not as critical as the use of accessory muscles. Inspiratory crackles (choice D) may be present in pneumonia but are not as indicative of impending respiratory failure as the increased work of breathing shown by the use of accessory muscles.

2. Progressive kyphoscoliosis leading to respiratory distress is evident in a client with muscular dystrophy. Which finding warrants immediate intervention by the nurse?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Evidence of hypoventilation. In a client with muscular dystrophy and progressive kyphoscoliosis, hypoventilation indicates respiratory muscle weakness and can lead to life-threatening respiratory distress. Immediate intervention is crucial to prevent complications. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because while extremity muscle weakness, bilateral eyelid drooping, and inability to swallow pills are concerning symptoms in muscular dystrophy, evidence of hypoventilation poses a more immediate threat to the client's respiratory status.

3. The nurse is assessing a client with chronic kidney disease (CKD) who is receiving erythropoietin therapy. Which assessment finding is most concerning?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In a client with chronic kidney disease (CKD) receiving erythropoietin therapy, an elevated blood pressure is the most concerning assessment finding. Elevated blood pressure can indicate worsening hypertension, which requires immediate intervention. Increased fatigue may be expected due to anemia associated with CKD and erythropoietin therapy. Low urine output may indicate impaired kidney function but is not as immediately concerning as elevated blood pressure. Elevated hemoglobin levels are the desired outcome of erythropoietin therapy, indicating an appropriate response to treatment.

4. The nurse is caring for a client with a history of atrial fibrillation who is prescribed warfarin (Coumadin). Which laboratory value should the nurse monitor closely?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The INR should be closely monitored in a client prescribed warfarin (Coumadin) to assess the effectiveness and safety of anticoagulation therapy. Monitoring the INR helps determine if the client's blood is clotting appropriately. While prothrombin time (PT) is related to warfarin therapy, the INR is a more precise measure. Hemoglobin level and serum sodium level are not directly related to monitoring warfarin therapy.

5. A client with a history of chronic kidney disease (CKD) is receiving erythropoietin therapy. Which laboratory value should the nurse monitor closely?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Serum potassium level. In a client receiving erythropoietin therapy for chronic kidney disease, monitoring serum potassium levels is crucial due to the risk of hyperkalemia. Erythropoietin can stimulate red blood cell production, leading to an increased demand for potassium. Monitoring potassium levels helps prevent complications associated with hyperkalemia. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because erythropoietin therapy specifically impacts potassium levels, not white blood cell count, hemoglobin level, or serum calcium level.

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