HESI RN
HESI RN Exit Exam
1. The healthcare provider is assessing a client with chronic kidney disease (CKD) who is receiving erythropoietin therapy. Which clinical finding is most concerning?
- A. Increased fatigue
- B. Elevated blood pressure
- C. Elevated hemoglobin
- D. Low urine output
Correct answer: B
Rationale: In a client with chronic kidney disease (CKD) receiving erythropoietin therapy, elevated blood pressure is the most concerning finding. Elevated blood pressure can indicate worsening hypertension, which requires immediate intervention to prevent further damage to the kidneys and other organs. Increased fatigue (choice A) is a common symptom in CKD but may not be as acutely concerning as elevated blood pressure. Elevated hemoglobin (choice C) can be an expected outcome of erythropoietin therapy and is not necessarily concerning. Low urine output (choice D) is important to monitor in CKD but may not be as immediately concerning as elevated blood pressure in this context.
2. An 80-year-old male client with multiple chronic health problems becomes disoriented, agitated, and combative 24 hours after being admitted to the hospital. What nursing intervention is most important to include in this client's plan of care?
- A. Request a psychiatric consultation for the client.
- B. Reorient the client frequently to time, place, and person.
- C. Administer prescribed antipsychotic medications to reduce agitation.
- D. Obtain an order for a sitter to stay with the client.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Reorienting the client frequently is the most important nursing intervention in this scenario. It helps reduce confusion and agitation, which are common symptoms of acute delirium in hospitalized elderly clients. Requesting a psychiatric consult (choice A) may be necessary if the reorientation does not improve the client's condition or if there are underlying psychiatric concerns, but reorientation should be attempted first. Administering antipsychotic medications (choice C) should not be the initial intervention as they can have adverse effects in elderly individuals. Obtaining a sitter (choice D) may provide support but does not directly address the client's disorientation and agitation.
3. The nurse is preparing a community education program on osteoporosis. Which instruction is helpful in preventing bone loss and promoting bone formation?
- A. Recommend weight-bearing physical activity.
- B. Encourage a diet high in dairy products.
- C. Suggest vitamin D supplementation.
- D. Advise avoiding caffeine and alcohol.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Recommend weight-bearing physical activity. Weight-bearing exercises are effective in maintaining bone density and preventing osteoporosis by promoting bone formation. Encouraging a diet high in dairy products (choice B) can provide calcium, but it's not as directly related to bone formation as physical activity. While vitamin D supplementation (choice C) is important for calcium absorption and bone health, it is not directly involved in promoting bone formation. Advising to avoid caffeine and alcohol (choice D) can be beneficial for bone health, but it is not as directly related to promoting bone formation as weight-bearing physical activity.
4. A woman who takes pyridostigmine for myasthenia gravis (MG) arrives at the emergency department complaining of extreme muscle weakness. Her adult daughter tells the nurse that since yesterday her mother has been unable to smile. Which assessment finding warrants immediate intervention by the nurse?
- A. Uncontrollable drooling.
- B. Inability to raise voice.
- C. Tingling of extremities.
- D. Eyelid drooping.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Uncontrollable drooling can be a sign of a myasthenic crisis, which requires immediate medical intervention to prevent respiratory failure. Drooling indicates difficulty in swallowing, which can lead to aspiration and respiratory compromise. Inability to raise voice (choice B) and tingling of extremities (choice C) are not typically associated with myasthenic crisis. Although eyelid drooping (choice D) is a common symptom of myasthenia gravis, it is not as urgent as uncontrollable drooling in indicating a potential crisis.
5. A client with a spinal cord injury is admitted to the ICU. Which nursing intervention is most important to include in this client's plan of care?
- A. Monitor for signs of autonomic dysreflexia.
- B. Implement measures to prevent pressure ulcers.
- C. Perform passive range of motion exercises.
- D. Ensure that the client is turned every two hours.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Monitor for signs of autonomic dysreflexia. Autonomic dysreflexia is a life-threatening condition that can occur in clients with spinal cord injuries, especially those with injuries above the T6 level. It is characterized by a sudden onset of excessively high blood pressure, pounding headache, profuse sweating, and flushing above the level of injury. Failure to recognize and treat autonomic dysreflexia promptly can lead to seizures, stroke, or even death. Therefore, monitoring for signs of autonomic dysreflexia is crucial in clients with spinal cord injuries. Choices B, C, and D are important interventions too, but in the context of a spinal cord injury, monitoring for autonomic dysreflexia takes priority due to its potentially life-threatening nature.
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