HESI RN
HESI RN Exit Exam
1. The healthcare provider is assessing a client with chronic kidney disease (CKD) who is receiving erythropoietin therapy. Which clinical finding is most concerning?
- A. Increased fatigue
- B. Elevated blood pressure
- C. Elevated hemoglobin
- D. Low urine output
Correct answer: B
Rationale: In a client with chronic kidney disease (CKD) receiving erythropoietin therapy, elevated blood pressure is the most concerning finding. Elevated blood pressure can indicate worsening hypertension, which requires immediate intervention to prevent further damage to the kidneys and other organs. Increased fatigue (choice A) is a common symptom in CKD but may not be as acutely concerning as elevated blood pressure. Elevated hemoglobin (choice C) can be an expected outcome of erythropoietin therapy and is not necessarily concerning. Low urine output (choice D) is important to monitor in CKD but may not be as immediately concerning as elevated blood pressure in this context.
2. A client with end-stage renal disease (ESRD) is scheduled for hemodialysis. Which laboratory value should be reported to the healthcare provider before the procedure?
- A. Serum creatinine of 2.5 mg/dL
- B. Serum potassium of 6.5 mEq/L
- C. Serum calcium of 8 mg/dL
- D. Serum bicarbonate of 24 mEq/L
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. A serum potassium level of 6.5 mEq/L is dangerously high and should be reported before hemodialysis to prevent cardiac complications. High potassium levels can lead to life-threatening arrhythmias. Serum creatinine (Choice A) is elevated in renal dysfunction but not the most critical value to report before hemodialysis. Serum calcium (Choice C) and serum bicarbonate (Choice D) levels are within normal limits and are not immediate concerns before hemodialysis.
3. The nurse plans to administer a scheduled dose of metoprolol (Toprol SR) at 0900 to a client with hypertension. At 0800, the nurse notes that the client's telemetry pattern shows a second-degree heart block with a ventricular rate of 50. What action should the nurse take?
- A. Administer the Toprol immediately and monitor the client until the heart rate increases.
- B. Provide the dose of Toprol as scheduled and assign a UAP to monitor the client's BP q30 minutes.
- C. Give the Toprol as scheduled if the client's systolic blood pressure reading is greater than 180.
- D. Hold the scheduled dose of Toprol and notify the healthcare provider of the telemetry pattern.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: In clients with second-degree heart block, beta blockers such as metoprolol (Toprol SR) are contraindicated as they can further decrease the heart rate. Administering metoprolol in this situation can lead to serious complications. The correct action for the nurse to take is to hold the scheduled dose of Toprol and promptly notify the healthcare provider of the telemetry pattern. This ensures patient safety and appropriate management of the cardiac condition. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because administering Toprol despite the heart block can worsen the condition and pose a risk to the client's health.
4. A client with chronic kidney disease (CKD) is receiving epoetin alfa (Epogen). Which laboratory value should the nurse monitor closely?
- A. Hemoglobin
- B. White blood cell count
- C. Serum potassium
- D. Serum creatinine
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Serum potassium. When a client with chronic kidney disease (CKD) is receiving epoetin alfa (Epogen), monitoring serum potassium levels closely is crucial. Epoetin alfa stimulates red blood cell production, which can lead to an increase in potassium levels. Hyperkalemia is a potential risk in these clients. Monitoring hemoglobin levels (choice A) is important in assessing the effectiveness of epoetin alfa therapy, but it is not the laboratory value that poses an immediate risk related to the medication. White blood cell count (choice B) and serum creatinine (choice D) are not directly affected by epoetin alfa therapy and are not the priority laboratory values to monitor in this case.
5. A male client is having abdominal pain after a left femoral angioplasty and stent, and is asking for additional pain medication for right lower quadrant pain (9/10). Two hours ago, he received hydrocodone/acetaminophen 7.5/7.50 mg. His vital signs are elevated from the previous hour: temperature 97.8 F, heart rate 102 beats per minute, respiration 20 breaths per minute. His abdomen is swollen, the groin access site is tender, peripheral pulses are present, but the left leg is larger than the right. Preoperatively, clopidogrel was prescribed for a history of previous peripheral stents. Another nurse is holding manual pressure on the femoral arterial access site which may be leaking into the abdomen. What data is needed to make this report complete?
- A. Client's lungs are clear bilaterally, and oxygen saturation is 97%.
- B. The surgeon needs to see the client immediately to evaluate the situation.
- C. Left peripheral pulses were present only by Doppler pre-procedure.
- D. Client's history includes multiple back surgeries and chronic pain.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. Immediate evaluation by the surgeon is necessary due to the possibility of an internal hemorrhage, which is a life-threatening condition. Choice A is incorrect as lung status and oxygen saturation are not the priority in this situation. Choice C is not relevant to the current urgent issue. Choice D, while providing additional history, is not pertinent to the immediate concern of a potential internal hemorrhage post angioplasty and stent placement.
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