a client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease copd is admitted with pneumonia which assessment finding requires immediate intervention
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Nursing Elites

HESI RN

HESI RN Exit Exam

1. A client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is admitted with pneumonia. Which assessment finding requires immediate intervention?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. The use of accessory muscles indicates increased work of breathing and can signal respiratory failure in a client with COPD. This finding requires immediate intervention to prevent further respiratory compromise. Oxygen saturation of 90% indicates some oxygenation impairment but may not necessitate immediate intervention. A respiratory rate of 24 breaths per minute is slightly elevated but does not indicate immediate respiratory distress. Inspiratory crackles may be present in pneumonia but do not require immediate intervention compared to the increased work of breathing indicated by the use of accessory muscles.

2. Following insertion of a LeVeen shunt in a client with cirrhosis of the liver, which assessment finding indicates to the nurse that the shunt is effective?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Decreased abdominal girth. In a client with cirrhosis of the liver, a LeVeen shunt is used to treat ascites, which is the accumulation of fluid in the peritoneal cavity. A decrease in abdominal girth indicates that the shunt is effectively draining the ascitic fluid, relieving the client's abdominal distension. Choice B, increased blood pressure, is incorrect as a LeVeen shunt is not expected to impact blood pressure. Choice C, clear breath sounds, is unrelated to the effectiveness of a LeVeen shunt in managing ascites. Choice D, decreased serum albumin, is also not a direct indicator of the shunt's effectiveness in draining ascitic fluid.

3. The nurse is caring for a client with chronic heart failure who is receiving furosemide (Lasix). Which laboratory value requires immediate intervention?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A serum potassium level of 3.0 mEq/L is most concerning in a client receiving furosemide as it indicates hypokalemia, which requires immediate intervention. Hypokalemia can lead to serious cardiac arrhythmias, which can be life-threatening. Serum sodium of 135 mEq/L and serum creatinine of 1.8 mg/dL are within normal ranges and do not require immediate intervention in this case. Blood glucose of 200 mg/dL is elevated but does not pose an immediate threat to the client's life in the context of heart failure and furosemide therapy.

4. A client with a history of chronic kidney disease (CKD) is admitted with hyperkalemia. Which clinical finding is most concerning?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Peaked T waves on the ECG are the most concerning finding in a client with hyperkalemia. Hyperkalemia can lead to serious cardiac complications, including arrhythmias and cardiac arrest. Peaked T waves are a classic ECG finding associated with hyperkalemia and indicate the need for immediate intervention. Bradycardia, muscle weakness, and decreased deep tendon reflexes can also be seen in hyperkalemia, but the presence of peaked T waves signifies a higher risk of cardiac events, making it the most concerning finding in this scenario.

5. The nurse is caring for a client with end-stage renal disease (ESRD) who is scheduled for hemodialysis. Which assessment finding is most concerning?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A fever of 100.4°F is the most concerning assessment finding in a client with ESRD scheduled for hemodialysis. This elevation in temperature may indicate an underlying infection, which can lead to serious complications in individuals with compromised renal function. Prompt intervention is necessary to prevent the spread of infection and deterioration of the client's condition. The other vital signs mentioned, such as blood pressure, heart rate, and respiratory rate, while important to monitor, are within acceptable ranges and do not pose an immediate threat like a fever indicative of infection.

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