Nursing Elites

1. A client with newly diagnosed peptic ulcer disease is being taught about lifestyle modifications. Which client statement indicates that further teaching is needed?

• A. ‘I should avoid eating spicy foods to prevent irritation of my ulcer.’
• B. ‘I should take my antacids regularly, even if I don’t have symptoms.’
• C. ‘I should avoid smoking to prevent exacerbation of my symptoms.’
• D. ‘I should avoid drinking alcohol to prevent irritation of my ulcer.’

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The corrected question assesses the client's understanding of lifestyle modifications for peptic ulcer disease. Choice D, 'I should avoid drinking alcohol to prevent irritation of my ulcer,' is the correct answer. This statement demonstrates that the client has a good grasp of the teaching provided, as alcohol can indeed irritate peptic ulcers. Choices A, B, and C are all accurate statements that reflect appropriate understanding of managing peptic ulcer disease and do not indicate a need for further teaching.

2. A 35-year-old female client has just been admitted to the post-anesthesia recovery unit following a partial thyroidectomy. Which statement reflects the nurse's accurate understanding of the expected outcome for the client following this surgery?

• A. Supplemental hormonal therapy will probably be unnecessary.
• B. The thyroid will regenerate to a normal size within a few years.
• C. The client will be restricted from eating seafood.
• D. The remainder of the thyroid will be removed at a later date.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: After a partial thyroidectomy, the client may be advised to avoid eating seafood due to its high iodine content, which can affect the thyroid function. Choice A is incorrect because after a partial thyroidectomy, supplemental hormonal therapy may be necessary. Choice B is incorrect as the thyroid does not regenerate after a partial thyroidectomy. Choice D is incorrect; the remaining portion of the thyroid is not typically removed at a later date unless there are specific medical reasons to do so.

3. Sublingual nitroglycerin is administered to a male client with unstable angina who complains of crushing chest pain. Five minutes later the client becomes nauseated, and his blood pressure drops to 60/40. Which intervention should the nurse implement?

• A. Administer a second dose of nitroglycerin.
• B. Infuse a rapid IV normal saline bolus.
• C. Begin external chest compressions.
• D. Give a PRN antiemetic medication.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In this scenario, the client's symptoms of nausea and a significant drop in blood pressure suggest a potential right ventricular infarction. The appropriate intervention for this situation is to infuse a rapid IV normal saline bolus. This fluid resuscitation helps improve cardiac output by increasing preload, which can be beneficial in right ventricular infarction. Administering a second dose of nitroglycerin may further lower blood pressure. External chest compressions are not indicated in this case as the client has a pulse. Providing an antiemetic medication does not address the underlying issue of hypotension and potential right ventricular involvement.

4. A client with end-stage renal disease (ESRD) is scheduled for hemodialysis. Which laboratory value should the nurse report to the healthcare provider immediately?

• A. Serum potassium of 5.5 mEq/L
• B. Serum calcium of 8 mg/dL
• C. Serum creatinine of 2.0 mg/dL
• D. White blood cell count of 10,000/mm³

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A serum potassium level of 5.5 mEq/L is concerning in a client with ESRD scheduled for hemodialysis as it indicates hyperkalemia, requiring immediate intervention. Hyperkalemia can lead to serious cardiac arrhythmias, especially during hemodialysis. Serum calcium, serum creatinine, and white blood cell count, while important, do not pose immediate life-threatening risks like hyperkalemia.

5. When assessing a client with left-sided heart failure, which intervention should the nurse implement first?

• A. Administer oxygen therapy as prescribed.
• B. Monitor the client's urine output.
• C. Administer a loop diuretic as prescribed.
• D. Administer morphine as prescribed.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Administering oxygen therapy is the initial intervention for a client with left-sided heart failure. This action is crucial in improving oxygen levels and reducing pulmonary congestion. Monitoring urine output is important for assessing renal function in heart failure, but it is not the priority over ensuring adequate oxygenation. Administering loop diuretics helps manage fluid overload but should come after addressing oxygen needs. Morphine may be indicated for pain or anxiety in some cases, but it is not the primary intervention for left-sided heart failure.

Similar Questions