HESI RN
HESI RN Exit Exam 2023
1. A client with newly diagnosed peptic ulcer disease is being taught about lifestyle modifications. Which client statement indicates that further teaching is needed?
- A. ‘I should avoid eating spicy foods to prevent irritation of my ulcer.’
- B. ‘I should take my antacids regularly, even if I don’t have symptoms.’
- C. ‘I should avoid smoking to prevent exacerbation of my symptoms.’
- D. ‘I should avoid drinking alcohol to prevent irritation of my ulcer.’
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The corrected question assesses the client's understanding of lifestyle modifications for peptic ulcer disease. Choice D, 'I should avoid drinking alcohol to prevent irritation of my ulcer,' is the correct answer. This statement demonstrates that the client has a good grasp of the teaching provided, as alcohol can indeed irritate peptic ulcers. Choices A, B, and C are all accurate statements that reflect appropriate understanding of managing peptic ulcer disease and do not indicate a need for further teaching.
2. A client with heart failure is prescribed furosemide (Lasix). Which assessment finding should the nurse report to the healthcare provider immediately?
- A. Heart rate of 60 beats per minute
- B. Blood pressure of 100/60 mmHg
- C. Presence of a new murmur
- D. Crackles in the lungs
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Crackles in the lungs. Crackles indicate fluid overload in the lungs, a critical sign in a client with heart failure. This finding suggests that the furosemide may not be effectively managing the fluid balance, and immediate intervention is required. Choices A, B, and C are not immediate concerns in this scenario. A heart rate of 60 beats per minute, a blood pressure of 100/60 mmHg, and the presence of a new murmur are findings that may require monitoring or intervention but are not as urgent as crackles in the lungs in a client with heart failure.
3. A client with heart failure who is on a low sodium diet reports a weight gain of 2 kg in 24 hours. Which intervention should the nurse implement first?
- A. Instruct the client to reduce fluid intake
- B. Monitor the client's intake and output
- C. Administer a diuretic as prescribed
- D. Assess the client for signs of fluid overload
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct first intervention for a client with heart failure who is on a low sodium diet and reports a significant weight gain is to assess the client for signs of fluid overload. This step is crucial in determining the severity of the situation and guiding further treatment. In this scenario, assessing for signs of fluid overload takes priority over other actions such as instructing the client to reduce fluid intake, monitoring intake and output, or administering a diuretic. While these actions may be necessary depending on the assessment findings, the initial priority is to evaluate the client's immediate condition.
4. A client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is admitted with an exacerbation. Which intervention should the nurse implement first?
- A. Administer oxygen therapy as prescribed.
- B. Elevate the head of the bed.
- C. Obtain a sputum culture.
- D. Administer antibiotics as prescribed.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is to administer oxygen therapy as prescribed. In COPD exacerbation, the priority is to improve oxygenation. Administering oxygen therapy helps ensure an adequate oxygen supply to the body's tissues. Elevating the head of the bed can improve ventilation but is not the first intervention needed in this situation. Obtaining a sputum culture and administering antibiotics are important in COPD exacerbation but come after ensuring proper oxygenation.
5. A client with a history of atrial fibrillation is receiving warfarin (Coumadin). Which assessment finding is most concerning?
- A. INR of 3.5
- B. Prothrombin time (PT) of 15 seconds
- C. Headache
- D. Blood pressure of 140/90 mmHg
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. A headache in a client with a history of atrial fibrillation receiving warfarin (Coumadin) is concerning as it may indicate bleeding, which requires immediate assessment and intervention. Headaches can be a symptom of increased intracranial pressure due to bleeding, especially in patients on anticoagulants. Options A and B are within acceptable ranges for a client on warfarin therapy, indicating that the medication is effectively managing the clotting times. Option D, a blood pressure of 140/90 mmHg, while elevated, is not directly related to the client's condition of atrial fibrillation and warfarin therapy.
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