Nursing Elites

1. A client on long-term corticosteroid therapy for rheumatoid arthritis presents with weakness and hypotension. What is the nurse's first action?

• A. Administer a PRN dose of corticosteroids.
• B. Place the client in a supine position.
• C. Encourage oral fluid intake.
• D. Review the client's recent medication history.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Administering a PRN dose of corticosteroids is the correct first action when a client on long-term corticosteroid therapy presents with weakness and hypotension. In this scenario, the client is likely experiencing adrenal insufficiency due to prolonged corticosteroid use. Administering corticosteroids promptly can help correct this insufficiency and improve the client's symptoms. Placing the client in a supine position may be necessary for symptomatic hypotension, but addressing the root cause with corticosteroids is more crucial initially. Encouraging oral fluid intake is important for many conditions but is not the priority in this case. Reviewing the client's recent medication history can provide valuable information but is not the first action needed to address the client's current presentation.

2. A woman who is breastfeeding calls her obstetrician’s office and reports increased anxiety since the vaginal delivery of her son three weeks ago. She stopped taking her antianxiety medications but is thinking of restarting them. What response should the nurse provide?

• A. Describe the potential transmission of drugs to the infant through breast milk.
• B. Encourage her to utilize stress-relieving alternatives, such as deep breathing.
• C. Explain that anxiety is a common reaction for mothers of 3-week-old infants.
• D. Inform her that some antianxiety medications are safe to take while breastfeeding.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D because some antianxiety medications are considered safe during breastfeeding. The nurse should reassure the client and encourage her to discuss options with her healthcare provider to manage anxiety safely while continuing to breastfeed. Choice A is incorrect because it focuses on the transmission of drugs rather than providing guidance on safe medication use. Choice B, while promoting stress-relieving techniques, does not address the potential need for medication. Choice C is incorrect as it minimizes the woman's reported anxiety, which may require professional intervention.

3. Which of the following statements reflects appropriate teaching to prevent injury in a client with rheumatoid arthritis?

• A. Use heat applications to relieve swelling and stiffness.
• B. Take warm showers before activity.
• C. Use cold packs to relieve joint pain.
• D. Take prescribed anti-inflammatory medications with meals.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. Using cold packs to relieve joint pain is appropriate for clients with rheumatoid arthritis as cold therapy is more effective at reducing inflammation and pain in these conditions. Heat applications may exacerbate the symptoms by increasing swelling. Taking warm showers before activity may provide comfort but does not directly address joint pain or prevent injury. While anti-inflammatory medications are commonly prescribed, they are not directly related to preventing injury in clients with rheumatoid arthritis.

4. A client receiving IV heparin reports tarry stools and abdominal pain. What interventions should the nurse implement?

• A. Prepare to administer warfarin.
• B. Assess the characteristics of the client's pain.
• C. Obtain recent partial thromboplastin time results.
• D. Monitor stool for the presence of blood.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct intervention for the client receiving IV heparin who reports tarry stools and abdominal pain is to monitor the stool for the presence of blood. This is crucial to assess for gastrointestinal bleeding, a potential complication of heparin therapy. Assessing the characteristics of the client's pain may be helpful but is not the priority when signs of GI bleeding are present. Administering warfarin is not appropriate without a thorough assessment and confirmation of the cause of symptoms. While obtaining recent partial thromboplastin time results is important in monitoring heparin therapy, in this scenario, the immediate concern is to assess for possible GI bleeding.

5. Which client is at greatest risk for developing delirium?

• A. An adult client who cannot sleep due to pain.
• B. An older client who attempted suicide 1 month ago.
• C. A young adult taking antipsychotic medications twice daily.
• D. A middle-aged woman using supplemental oxygen.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Older adults who have attempted suicide are at higher risk for developing delirium, especially in the context of underlying mental health conditions. Choice A is incorrect as sleep disturbances due to pain may lead to discomfort but not necessarily delirium. Choice C is incorrect as taking antipsychotic medications, if managed well, does not inherently increase the risk of delirium. Choice D is incorrect as using supplemental oxygen alone does not significantly increase the risk of developing delirium.

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