HESI RN
HESI Community Health
1. The school nurse who is reviewing immunization records of students who will start kindergarten within the next month notes that most of the students have only received one dose of the measles, mumps, rubella (MMR) vaccine. Which intervention should the nurse implement?
- A. Note in the student records that the second dose of the MMR vaccine should be administered prior to entering first grade
- B. Send notices home with the children on the first day of class advising that MMR vaccine series must be completed
- C. Contact kindergarten parents to remind them that the second dose of MMR is due at the start of the school year
- D. Speak at the next parent-teacher association meeting to teach parents the benefits of immunizing their children
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct intervention for the school nurse is to contact kindergarten parents to remind them that the second dose of the MMR vaccine is due at the start of the school year. This approach directly addresses the issue of incomplete vaccination coverage and ensures that children receive the complete vaccination on time. Choice A is incorrect as it only notes the need for the second dose without actively engaging parents. Choice B is not as effective as directly contacting parents and may lead to delays in completing the vaccination series. Choice D, while promoting immunization, does not directly address the current situation of incomplete MMR vaccination among the kindergarten students.
2. During a home visit, the nurse observes an elderly client with disabilities slip and fall. What action should the nurse take first?
- A. provide the client with 4 ounces of orange juice
- B. call 911 to summon emergency assistance
- C. check the client for lacerations or fractures
- D. assess the client's blood sugar level
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take first after an elderly client with disabilities slips and falls is to check the client for lacerations or fractures. This is crucial to assess the extent of injuries and provide appropriate medical attention promptly. Option A, providing orange juice, is not a priority in this situation and does not address the potential injuries. While calling 911 (Option B) may be necessary, assessing for immediate injuries takes precedence. Assessing the client's blood sugar level (Option D) is not the immediate priority after a fall unless there is a specific indication or suspicion of hypoglycemia.
3. A community health nurse is working with a local organization to address food insecurity. Which action should the nurse prioritize?
- A. organizing a food drive to collect non-perishable items
- B. creating a community garden to grow fresh produce
- C. establishing a weekly meal program for those in need
- D. partnering with local businesses to donate food
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is establishing a weekly meal program for those in need. This action prioritizes providing consistent and reliable access to food for individuals experiencing food insecurity. While organizing a food drive (Choice A) and partnering with local businesses to donate food (Choice D) are helpful, they may not offer a sustainable solution for ongoing food needs. Creating a community garden (Choice B) may promote self-sufficiency and access to fresh produce, but it may not address the immediate food needs of individuals who are food insecure. Therefore, establishing a weekly meal program is the most effective choice to ensure regular access to food for those in need.
4. A client with a history of seizures is admitted with status epilepticus. Which medication should the nurse prepare to administer?
- A. Phenytoin (Dilantin)
- B. Diazepam (Valium)
- C. Lorazepam (Ativan)
- D. Carbamazepine (Tegretol)
Correct answer: C
Rationale: In the management of status epilepticus, the initial medication of choice is a benzodiazepine to rapidly terminate the seizure activity. Lorazepam (Ativan) is preferred over Diazepam (Valium) due to its longer duration of action and lower risk of respiratory depression. Phenytoin (Dilantin) and Carbamazepine (Tegretol) are not the first-line agents for the acute treatment of status epilepticus, making them incorrect choices in this scenario.
5. An 80-year-old client is given morphine sulfate for postoperative pain. Which concomitant medication should the nurse question that poses a potential development of urinary retention in this geriatric client?
- A. Nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory agents.
- B. Antihistamines.
- C. Tricyclic antidepressants.
- D. Antibiotics.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Tricyclic antidepressants. Drugs with anticholinergic properties, such as tricyclic antidepressants, can exacerbate urinary retention associated with opioids in older clients. Nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory agents (Choice A) do not typically cause urinary retention. Antihistamines (Choice B) may cause urinary retention but are not the primary concern in this scenario. Antibiotics (Choice D) are not associated with an increased risk of urinary retention compared to tricyclic antidepressants.
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