HESI RN
HESI RN Exit Exam 2023 Capstone
1. The healthcare provider is assessing a client who has just received anesthesia. What is the most critical finding to report to the healthcare provider?
- A. Client reports dizziness
- B. Client has a drop in blood pressure
- C. Client experiences mild nausea
- D. Client reports dry mouth
Correct answer: B
Rationale: A significant drop in blood pressure following anesthesia could indicate a serious reaction, such as hypovolemia or anesthetic-induced hypotension. This requires immediate medical attention, while other symptoms like dizziness, mild nausea, and dry mouth are more common and less critical. Dizziness could be expected due to the effects of anesthesia, mild nausea is a common side effect, and dry mouth is a known effect of anesthesia as well.
2. A client with a urinary tract infection is prescribed ciprofloxacin. What is the most important teaching the nurse should provide?
- A. Take the medication with milk to prevent stomach upset.
- B. Increase fluid intake to 2-3 liters per day.
- C. Avoid taking the medication with dairy products.
- D. Continue taking the medication even if symptoms improve.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Ciprofloxacin can cause crystalluria, so increasing fluid intake to 2-3 liters per day helps flush out the medication and prevent crystal formation in the kidneys. This also ensures adequate hydration, which supports the body's ability to fight the infection. Choice A is incorrect because ciprofloxacin should not be taken with dairy products as they can interfere with the absorption of the medication. Choice D is incorrect because although it's important to complete the full course of antibiotics, it's equally crucial to report any improvement in symptoms to the healthcare provider.
3. A male client with hypertension, who received new antihypertensive prescriptions at his last visit returns to the clinic two weeks later to evaluate his blood pressure (BP). His BP is 158/106, and he admits that he has not been taking the prescribed medication because the drugs make him feel bad. In explaining the need for hypertension control, the nurse should stress that an elevated BP places the client at risk for which pathophysiological condition?
- A. Stroke secondary to hemorrhage
- B. Myocardial infarction
- C. Heart failure
- D. Renal failure
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Stroke is a major complication of uncontrolled hypertension. Elevated BP, especially at levels like 158/106, can cause damage to blood vessels in the brain, leading to a hemorrhagic stroke. Controlling BP is essential to prevent such life-threatening events. Myocardial infarction (choice B) is more commonly associated with coronary artery disease, while heart failure (choice C) and renal failure (choice D) can be complications of uncontrolled hypertension but are not directly related to the elevated BP leading to a hemorrhagic stroke.
4. The nurse is caring for a client with an exacerbation of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD). Which intervention is most important to promote effective breathing?
- A. Encourage diaphragmatic breathing
- B. Increase the client's oxygen flow rate
- C. Have the client perform range of motion exercises
- D. Place the client in a supine position
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Encouraging diaphragmatic breathing is crucial in clients with COPD as it helps improve lung expansion and oxygen exchange, promoting more effective breathing. This intervention aids in reducing dyspnea and enhancing ventilation. Increasing the client's oxygen flow rate may not be appropriate and can potentially worsen hypercapnia in individuals with COPD. Performing range of motion exercises and placing the client in a supine position do not directly address the breathing difficulties associated with COPD exacerbation.
5. A client with a ruptured spleen underwent an emergency splenectomy. Twelve hours later, the client’s urine output is 25 ml/hour. What is the most likely cause?
- A. This is a normal finding after surgery.
- B. Oliguria signals tubular necrosis related to hypoperfusion.
- C. Oliguria signals dehydration and fluid loss.
- D. Urine output of 25 ml/hour is an expected finding after splenectomy.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Oliguria, or decreased urine output, after surgery can indicate tubular necrosis due to hypoperfusion, which may require intervention to restore renal function. Choice A is incorrect as oliguria is not a normal finding after surgery. Choice C is incorrect because dehydration is less likely in this context compared to tubular necrosis. Choice D is incorrect as a urine output of 25 ml/hour is not expected after splenectomy and should raise concern for renal impairment.
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