the nurse is assessing a client who has just received anesthesia what is the most critical finding to report to the physician
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Nursing Elites

HESI RN

HESI RN Exit Exam 2023 Capstone

1. The healthcare provider is assessing a client who has just received anesthesia. What is the most critical finding to report to the healthcare provider?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: A significant drop in blood pressure following anesthesia could indicate a serious reaction, such as hypovolemia or anesthetic-induced hypotension. This requires immediate medical attention, while other symptoms like dizziness, mild nausea, and dry mouth are more common and less critical. Dizziness could be expected due to the effects of anesthesia, mild nausea is a common side effect, and dry mouth is a known effect of anesthesia as well.

2. What is the expected outcome of prescribing a proton pump inhibitor to a client with a peptic ulcer?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Reduce gastric acid secretion. Proton pump inhibitors (PPIs) work by reducing gastric acid secretion, which helps prevent further irritation of the gastric mucosa and allows ulcers to heal. While promoting healing of the gastric mucosa (Choice A) is an indirect outcome of reducing gastric acid secretion, the primary mechanism of PPIs is to lower acid levels. Choice B, neutralizing the effects of stomach acid, is typically associated with antacids, not PPIs. Inhibiting the growth of Helicobacter pylori (Choice C) is usually achieved with antibiotics, not PPIs.

3. A client is receiving external beam radiation to the mediastinum for treatment of bronchial cancer. Which of the following should take priority in planning care?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Leukopenia. Leukopenia, or a low white blood cell count, is a critical concern in clients undergoing radiation therapy due to the increased risk of infection. While esophagitis, fatigue, and skin irritation are also potential side effects of radiation therapy, leukopenia poses a higher risk as it compromises the body's ability to fight infections effectively.

4. The nurse is caring for a 24-month-old toddler who has sensory sensitivity, difficulty engaging in social interactions, and has not yet spoken two-word phrases. Which assessment should the nurse administer?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The Modified Checklist for Autism in Toddlers (M-CHAT) is specifically designed to screen for autism spectrum disorders in young children. It is appropriate for this child, given the signs of social and communication delays. The Peabody Picture Vocabulary Test (Choice A) assesses receptive vocabulary and may not capture the social and communication aspects seen in autism. The Wechsler Preschool and Primary Scale of Intelligence (Choice C) measures cognitive ability and may not address the social and communication delays. The Denver Developmental Screening Test (Choice D) is a broad developmental assessment tool, but the M-CHAT is more specific to screening for autism in this case.

5. Following discharge teaching, a male client with a duodenal ulcer tells the nurse that he will drink plenty of dairy products, such as milk, to help coat and protect his ulcer. What is the best follow-up action by the nurse?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The client should be advised to avoid foods rich in milk and cream. Although they provide temporary relief, dairy products, especially milk, stimulate gastric acid secretion, which can exacerbate the symptoms of a duodenal ulcer. Encouraging the client to drink milk (Choice A) would be counterproductive and could worsen the condition. Instructing the client to take antacids (Choice C) may provide symptomatic relief but does not address the root cause of the issue. Advising the client to monitor their symptoms (Choice D) is vague and does not provide specific guidance on managing the duodenal ulcer. Therefore, the best action is to review with the client the need to avoid foods rich in milk and cream to ensure proper ulcer management.

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