HESI RN
HESI RN Exit Exam 2023 Capstone
1. The healthcare provider is assessing a client who has just received anesthesia. What is the most critical finding to report to the healthcare provider?
- A. Client reports dizziness
- B. Client has a drop in blood pressure
- C. Client experiences mild nausea
- D. Client reports dry mouth
Correct answer: B
Rationale: A significant drop in blood pressure following anesthesia could indicate a serious reaction, such as hypovolemia or anesthetic-induced hypotension. This requires immediate medical attention, while other symptoms like dizziness, mild nausea, and dry mouth are more common and less critical. Dizziness could be expected due to the effects of anesthesia, mild nausea is a common side effect, and dry mouth is a known effect of anesthesia as well.
2. The client is being taught to choose foods rich in potassium to prevent digitalis toxicity. Which choice indicates the client understands dietary needs?
- A. Three apricots
- B. Medium banana
- C. Naval orange
- D. Baked potato
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Baked potato. Baked potatoes are rich in potassium, which is essential in preventing digitalis toxicity by helping to maintain normal electrolyte levels. Apricots, bananas, and oranges are also sources of potassium, but a baked potato has a higher potassium content compared to the other options, making it a more effective choice for preventing digitalis toxicity.
3. A client is receiving continuous intravenous heparin for a deep vein thrombosis. Which laboratory result should the nurse monitor to ensure therapeutic heparin levels?
- A. International normalized ratio (INR)
- B. Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT)
- C. Hemoglobin
- D. Platelet count
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) is the most accurate measure of heparin's therapeutic effect. Heparin increases the time it takes for blood to clot, and the aPTT helps determine whether the dose is within the desired range for anticoagulation therapy. Monitoring the INR, hemoglobin, or platelet count is not specific to assessing therapeutic heparin levels and may not reflect the anticoagulant effect of heparin.
4. A client with diabetes insipidus is admitted due to a pituitary tumor. What complication should the nurse monitor closely?
- A. Monitor for elevated blood pressure.
- B. Monitor for ketonuria.
- C. Monitor for peripheral edema.
- D. Monitor for hypokalemia.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is to monitor for hypokalemia. In diabetes insipidus, excessive urination can lead to electrolyte imbalances, particularly low potassium levels (hypokalemia). The loss of potassium through increased urination can result in muscle weakness, cardiac dysrhythmias, and other serious complications. Elevated blood pressure (Choice A) is not a typical complication of diabetes insipidus due to pituitary tumors. Ketonuria (Choice B) is more commonly associated with diabetes mellitus due to inadequate insulin levels. Peripheral edema (Choice C) is not a direct complication of diabetes insipidus.
5. A client with deep vein thrombosis (DVT) is prescribed heparin. What lab value should the nurse monitor to assess the effectiveness of the therapy?
- A. Prothrombin time (PT).
- B. Partial thromboplastin time (PTT).
- C. International Normalized Ratio (INR).
- D. Hemoglobin and hematocrit.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Partial thromboplastin time (PTT). PTT is the lab value used to monitor the effectiveness of heparin therapy in clients with DVT. It measures the intrinsic pathway of coagulation and is prolonged by heparin therapy. Prothrombin time (PT) and International Normalized Ratio (INR) are primarily used to monitor warfarin therapy, not heparin. Checking hemoglobin and hematocrit levels is important but does not directly assess the effectiveness of heparin therapy in DVT.
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