a client is receiving morphine for postoperative pain what is the nurses priority assessment
Logo

Nursing Elites

HESI RN

HESI RN Exit Exam Capstone

1. A client is receiving morphine for postoperative pain. What is the nurse's priority assessment?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to monitor the client's respiratory rate. Morphine can cause respiratory depression, so assessing the respiratory rate is crucial to detect this potential side effect early. Monitoring the client's level of consciousness (Choice B) is important but comes after ensuring adequate breathing. Assessing the client's pain level (Choice C) is essential but not the priority when dealing with the side effects of morphine. Monitoring the client's blood pressure (Choice D) is also important but not the priority assessment when the focus is on respiratory depression.

2. A female client reports that her hair is becoming coarse and breaking off, that the outer part of her eyebrows has disappeared, and that her eyes are puffy. What follow-up question is best for the nurse to ask?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. Cold intolerance, fatigue, and other changes may indicate hypothyroidism, which could explain the hair and eyebrow loss, and puffy eyes. Choices A, B, and C are less relevant in this context and do not directly address the symptoms presented by the client.

3. The nurse is caring for a group of clients with the help of a PN. Which nursing actions should the nurse assign to the PN?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: All of these tasks fall within the PN's scope of practice, which includes performing surgical dressing changes, taking postoperative vital signs, and administering insulin under supervision. The RN can delegate these tasks to the PN safely. Choice A is the correct answer because all the tasks mentioned are appropriate for delegation to a PN. Choice B should not be assigned to a PN as only RNs should administer insulin. Choice C is suitable for delegation to a PN as obtaining vital signs falls within their scope of practice. Choice D is also appropriate for delegation to a PN as performing surgical dressing changes is within their scope of practice.

4. A client with a history of adrenal insufficiency is admitted with acute adrenal crisis. The client complains of nausea and joint pain, vital signs show a temperature of 102°F, heart rate of 138, and blood pressure of 80/60. Which intervention should the nurse implement first?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In acute adrenal crisis, the priority intervention is to infuse an intravenous fluid bolus to address the hypotension (blood pressure of 80/60) and help stabilize the client's condition. Adequate fluid volume is crucial in managing adrenal insufficiency crisis. Options A, C, and D do not directly address the hypotension and fluid volume depletion that are critical in this situation. Analgesics, antipyretics, and cooling blankets may be considered later, but the immediate focus should be on fluid resuscitation.

5. A client with a history of coronary artery disease is experiencing chest pain. What is the nurse's first action?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Administer sublingual nitroglycerin. Sublingual nitroglycerin is the first-line treatment for chest pain related to coronary artery disease. It helps dilate the coronary arteries and improve blood flow to the heart, providing immediate relief from ischemia. Administering nitroglycerin promptly can help alleviate the chest pain and prevent further complications. Obtaining a 12-lead electrocardiogram (Choice B) is important but should not delay the administration of nitroglycerin. Calling the healthcare provider (Choice C) can be done after initiating immediate treatment. Checking the client's oxygen saturation (Choice D) is relevant but not the first action to take in this scenario.

Similar Questions

After an older client receives treatment for drug toxicity, the healthcare provider prescribes a 24-hour creatinine clearance test. Before starting the urine collection, the nurse noted that the client's serum creatinine was 0.3 mg/dL. Which action should the nurse implement?
A 66-year-old woman is retiring and needs health insurance. To which agency should the employee health nurse refer her?
After receiving a report on an inpatient acute care unit, which client should the nurse assess first?
In monitoring tissue perfusion in a client following an above the knee amputation (AKA), which action should the nurse include in the plan of care?
A client with a history of alcohol abuse presents with confusion and unsteady gait. The nurse suspects Wernicke's encephalopathy. Which treatment should the nurse anticipate?

Access More Features

HESI RN Basic
$69.99/ 30 days

  • 5,000 Questions with answers
  • All HESI courses Coverage
  • 30 days access

HESI RN Premium
$149.99/ 90 days

  • 5,000 Questions with answers
  • All HESI courses Coverage
  • 30 days access

Other Courses