HESI RN
HESI RN Exit Exam Capstone
1. A client is receiving morphine for postoperative pain. What is the nurse's priority assessment?
- A. Monitor the client's respiratory rate.
- B. Monitor the client's level of consciousness.
- C. Assess the client's level of pain.
- D. Monitor the client's blood pressure.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is to monitor the client's respiratory rate. Morphine can cause respiratory depression, so assessing the respiratory rate is crucial to detect this potential side effect early. Monitoring the client's level of consciousness (Choice B) is important but comes after ensuring adequate breathing. Assessing the client's pain level (Choice C) is essential but not the priority when dealing with the side effects of morphine. Monitoring the client's blood pressure (Choice D) is also important but not the priority assessment when the focus is on respiratory depression.
2. The nurse is administering the 0900 medications to a client who was admitted during the night. Which client statement indicates that the nurse should further assess the medication order?
- A. At home I take my pills at 8:00 am.
- B. It costs a lot of money to buy all of these pills.
- C. I get so tired of taking pills every day.
- D. This is a new pill I have never taken before.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The client's statement that 'This is a new pill I have never taken before' indicates the need for further assessment by the nurse to ensure the medication is correct and safe. Choices A, B, and C do not raise immediate concerns about the medication order; therefore, they are incorrect. Choice A simply provides information about the client's usual medication schedule, choice B is related to the cost of the pills, and choice C expresses fatigue from taking pills, but none of these statements suggest a potential issue with the new medication.
3. A client with diabetes mellitus visits a health care clinic. The client's diabetes was previously well controlled with glyburide (Diabeta), 5 mg PO daily, but recently the fasting blood glucose has been running 180-200 mg/dl. Which medication, if added to the client's regimen, may have contributed to the hyperglycemia?
- A. Prednisone (Deltasone)
- B. Atenolol (Tenormin)
- C. Phenelzine (Nardil)
- D. Allopurinol (Zyloprim)
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Prednisone, a corticosteroid, can increase blood glucose levels by promoting gluconeogenesis and decreasing glucose uptake by cells. This medication can lead to hyperglycemia in patients, especially those with diabetes mellitus. Atenolol (Tenormin) is a beta-blocker and is not known to significantly affect blood glucose levels. Phenelzine (Nardil) is a monoamine oxidase inhibitor used to treat depression and anxiety disorders; it does not typically impact blood glucose levels. Allopurinol (Zyloprim) is a xanthine oxidase inhibitor used to manage gout and does not interfere with blood glucose regulation.
4. A nurse reviews the urinalysis of a client and notes the presence of glucose. Which action should the nurse take?
- A. Document findings and continue to monitor the client.
- B. Contact the provider and recommend a 24-hour urine test.
- C. Review the client’s recent dietary selections.
- D. Perform a capillary artery glucose assessment.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Glucose normally is not found in the urine. The normal renal threshold for glucose is about 220 mg/dL, which means that a person whose blood glucose is less than 220 mg/dL will not have glucose in the urine. A positive finding for glucose on urinalysis indicates high blood sugar. The most appropriate action would be to perform a capillary artery glucose assessment. The client needs further evaluation for this abnormal result; therefore, documenting and continuing to monitor is not appropriate. Requesting a 24-hour urine test or reviewing the client’s dietary selections will not assist the nurse to make a clinical decision related to this abnormality.
5. A nurse caring for a client with hypocalcemia would expect to note which of the following changes on the electrocardiogram?
- A. Widened T wave
- B. Prominent U wave
- C. Prolonged QT interval
- D. Shortened ST segment
Correct answer: C
Rationale: In hypocalcemia, a decreased level of calcium can lead to a prolonged QT interval on the ECG due to its role in myocardial repolarization. A widened T wave (Choice A) is typically seen in hyperkalemia. A prominent U wave (Choice B) is associated with hypokalemia. A shortened ST segment (Choice D) is not a typical ECG finding in hypocalcemia.