HESI RN
HESI 799 RN Exit Exam Capstone
1. A client with Cushing's syndrome presents with excessive bruising and elevated blood glucose. What action should the nurse take first?
- A. Check the client's blood glucose level.
- B. Administer insulin per sliding scale protocol.
- C. Administer intravenous fluids.
- D. Check the client's skin for signs of bruising.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Excessive bruising and elevated blood glucose are common symptoms of Cushing's syndrome. The nurse should first check the client's blood glucose level to assess and address the hyperglycemia promptly. Administering insulin or IV fluids would be premature without knowing the current blood glucose level. Checking the skin for bruising, although important for overall assessment, does not address the immediate concern of elevated blood glucose.
2. A client with a tracheostomy develops copious, thick secretions. What is the nurse's priority action?
- A. Increase the client's fluid intake.
- B. Perform tracheal suctioning.
- C. Administer a mucolytic agent.
- D. Increase the humidity of the oxygen source.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is to increase the humidity of the oxygen source. This action helps thin thick secretions, making them easier to clear from the tracheostomy tube. Increasing fluid intake (Choice A) can be beneficial in some cases but addressing humidity is more specific to managing thick secretions in a client with a tracheostomy. Tracheal suctioning (Choice B) should be done after attempting to thin the secretions with increased humidity. Administering a mucolytic agent (Choice C) is a possible intervention but typically comes after addressing humidity and before resorting to suctioning to avoid unnecessary invasiveness.
3. An older male client, who is a retired chef, is hospitalized with a diabetic ulcer on his foot. His daughter tells the nurse that her father has become increasingly obsessed with the way his food is prepared in the hospital. The nurse's response should be based on what information?
- A. His daughter's observations suggest the client is depressed
- B. His compulsiveness about food may indicate new cognitive decline
- C. Obsessiveness with food is common in diabetic clients
- D. If the client was compulsive about food when he was younger, the aging process can magnify this
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Age can magnify pre-existing compulsive tendencies. If the client was detail-oriented about food earlier in life, this behavior may intensify with aging. It's important to acknowledge and address the client's concerns respectfully. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because the daughter's observations do not necessarily point to depression, the compulsiveness about food does not indicate new cognitive decline without further assessment, and obsessiveness with food is not specifically common in diabetic clients.
4. A client is scheduled for a colonoscopy and has been prescribed a bowel preparation. What is the most important instruction for the nurse to provide?
- A. Eat a low-fiber diet the day before the procedure
- B. Drink clear liquids 24 hours before the procedure
- C. Take the entire bowel preparation as directed
- D. Avoid all solid foods 12 hours before the procedure
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The most important instruction for the nurse to provide to a client scheduled for a colonoscopy and prescribed a bowel preparation is to take the entire bowel preparation as directed. Completing the entire bowel preparation as prescribed is crucial to ensure the colon is properly cleansed for the colonoscopy. Incomplete bowel prep can interfere with the visualization of the colon, leading to inaccurate results. Choices A, B, and D are important but not as crucial as ensuring the complete intake of the bowel preparation for an effective procedure.
5. A client with gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD) is prescribed omeprazole. What is the primary purpose of this medication?
- A. Coat the lining of the stomach
- B. Neutralize stomach acid
- C. Promote gastric motility
- D. Reduce gastric acid secretion
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Reduce gastric acid secretion. Omeprazole is a proton pump inhibitor that works by reducing the production of gastric acid in the stomach. This helps in managing GERD by decreasing the acidity levels in the stomach. Choice A is incorrect because omeprazole does not coat the lining of the stomach. Choice B is incorrect as omeprazole does not neutralize stomach acid but rather reduces its production. Choice C is incorrect because omeprazole does not promote gastric motility; instead, it acts on acid secretion.
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