HESI RN
HESI 799 RN Exit Exam Capstone
1. A client with Cushing's syndrome presents with excessive bruising and elevated blood glucose. What action should the nurse take first?
- A. Check the client's blood glucose level.
- B. Administer insulin per sliding scale protocol.
- C. Administer intravenous fluids.
- D. Check the client's skin for signs of bruising.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Excessive bruising and elevated blood glucose are common symptoms of Cushing's syndrome. The nurse should first check the client's blood glucose level to assess and address the hyperglycemia promptly. Administering insulin or IV fluids would be premature without knowing the current blood glucose level. Checking the skin for bruising, although important for overall assessment, does not address the immediate concern of elevated blood glucose.
2. The nurse is preparing a discharge teaching plan for a liver transplant client. Which instruction is most important to include in this plan?
- A. Ensure daily follow-up with the healthcare provider
- B. Take immunosuppressant medications as prescribed
- C. Avoid crowds for the first two months after surgery
- D. Return to work in three months
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The most critical instruction to include in the discharge teaching plan for a liver transplant client is to take immunosuppressant medications as prescribed. This is vital to prevent organ rejection and ensure the success of the transplant. While ensuring daily follow-up with the healthcare provider is important for monitoring progress, avoiding crowds for the first two months after surgery helps reduce the risk of infections but is not as crucial as medication adherence. Returning to work in three months is a consideration but not the most important aspect immediately post-transplant.
3. A client with heart failure is receiving furosemide. What assessment finding indicates the medication is effective?
- A. Increased urine output and weight loss.
- B. Increased heart rate and blood pressure.
- C. Decreased edema and improved peripheral pulses.
- D. Decreased shortness of breath and clear lung sounds.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'Decreased edema and improved peripheral pulses.' In a client with heart failure, furosemide is a diuretic that helps reduce fluid overload. Therefore, a decrease in edema (swelling due to fluid retention) and improved peripheral pulses (indicating better circulation) are signs that the medication is effective. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Increased urine output and weight loss (Choice A) may indicate the diuretic effect of furosemide but do not specifically reflect its effectiveness in heart failure. Increased heart rate and blood pressure (Choice B) are not desired effects of furosemide and may suggest adverse reactions. Decreased shortness of breath and clear lung sounds (Choice D) are related to improved respiratory status and may not directly reflect the effectiveness of furosemide in addressing fluid overload.
4. A client is prescribed metformin for type 2 diabetes. What should the nurse emphasize in the client's teaching?
- A. Take the medication with meals to reduce the risk of GI upset.
- B. Report any muscle pain to the healthcare provider promptly.
- C. Avoid alcohol consumption while taking this medication.
- D. Monitor blood sugar levels regularly to prevent hypoglycemia.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is to avoid alcohol consumption while taking metformin. Alcohol can increase the risk of lactic acidosis when combined with metformin. Choice A is incorrect because metformin is usually recommended to be taken with meals to reduce GI upset. Choice B is important but not the priority; muscle pain is more commonly associated with other diabetes medications. Choice D is incorrect because metformin typically does not cause hypoglycemia but rather helps control blood sugar levels in type 2 diabetes.
5. A nurse from the maternity unit is floated to the critical care unit because of staff shortage on the evening shift. Which client would be appropriate to assign to this nurse?
- A. A client with a Dopamine drip IV with vital signs monitored every 5 minutes
- B. A client with a myocardial infarction that is free from pain and dysrhythmias
- C. A client with a tracheotomy of 24 hours in some respiratory distress
- D. A client with a pacemaker inserted this morning with intermittent capture
Correct answer: B
Rationale: In this scenario, it is more appropriate to assign a stable client, such as the one with a myocardial infarction who is free from pain and dysrhythmias, to a nurse who lacks specialized critical care experience. This client's condition is relatively stable and does not require immediate critical interventions. Choices A, C, and D involve clients with more complex and critical conditions that would be better managed by a nurse with specialized critical care training. Choice A involves a client on a Dopamine drip with frequent vital sign monitoring, Choice C has a client with a tracheotomy in respiratory distress, and Choice D describes a client with a pacemaker experiencing intermittent capture, all of which require a higher level of critical care expertise.
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