HESI RN
HESI 799 RN Exit Exam Capstone
1. After receiving hemodialysis, what is the nurse's priority assessment for a client with chronic kidney disease?
- A. Monitor the client's potassium level.
- B. Assess the client's blood pressure.
- C. Check the client's hemoglobin and hematocrit levels.
- D. Monitor for signs of infection.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is to monitor the client's potassium level. During hemodialysis, there is a risk of potassium shifting, which can lead to life-threatening arrhythmias if not properly managed. Assessing the potassium level is crucial to prevent complications. While assessing blood pressure, checking hemoglobin and hematocrit levels, and monitoring for signs of infection are important aspects of care for a client with chronic kidney disease, monitoring potassium levels takes precedence due to its immediate life-threatening potential post-dialysis.
2. A 60-year-old female client with a positive family history of ovarian cancer has developed an abdominal mass and is being evaluated for possible ovarian cancer. Her Papanicolau (Pap) smear results are negative. What information should the nurse include in the client’s teaching plan?
- A. Pap smear is sufficient to detect ovarian cancer
- B. Surgery is unnecessary based on negative Pap smear
- C. Further evaluation involving surgery may be needed
- D. No further tests are needed
Correct answer: C
Rationale: A negative Pap smear does not rule out ovarian cancer, which often requires more comprehensive evaluation, including imaging studies or surgery. The client should be informed that the Pap smear primarily detects cervical cancer, not ovarian cancer. Therefore, further evaluation involving imaging studies or surgery may be necessary to determine the presence of ovarian cancer. Choice A is incorrect because a Pap smear is not sufficient to detect ovarian cancer. Choice B is incorrect because surgery may be necessary for further evaluation if ovarian cancer is suspected. Choice D is incorrect because further tests are needed to confirm or rule out ovarian cancer.
3. A client who has been prescribed multiple antihypertensive medications experiences syncope and has a blood pressure of 70/40. What is the rationale for the nurse to hold the next scheduled antihypertensive dose?
- A. Increased urinary clearance of the medications has produced diuresis, lowering the blood pressure.
- B. The antagonistic interaction of the medications has reduced their effectiveness.
- C. The synergistic effect of the medications has resulted in drug toxicity, causing hypotension.
- D. The additive effect of the medications has lowered the blood pressure too much.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The additive effect of multiple antihypertensive medications can cause hypotension, leading to dangerously low blood pressure. In this scenario, the client experiencing syncope with a blood pressure of 70/40 indicates severe hypotension, likely due to the combined action of the antihypertensive medications. Holding the next scheduled dose is essential to prevent further lowering of blood pressure and potential complications. Choices A, B, and C provide inaccurate explanations and do not align with the client's presentation and the need to manage hypotension caused by the additive effect of the medications.
4. A client asks the nurse for information about reducing risk factors for BPH. Which information should the nurse provide?
- A. Increase physical activity
- B. Decrease alcohol consumption
- C. Reduce intake of dairy products
- D. Avoid caffeine and spicy foods
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Increase physical activity. Physical activity can help reduce the risk of benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH) by improving overall circulation and reducing inflammation. While decreasing alcohol consumption and avoiding caffeine and spicy foods may help with symptom management, increasing physical activity is more strongly linked to the prevention of BPH.
5. A toddler presenting with a history of intermittent skin rashes, hives, abdominal pain, and vomiting that occurs after ingesting milk products arrives at the clinic accompanied by the parents. Which type of testing should the nurse educate the toddler's family about?
- A. Complete blood count
- B. Lactose tolerance test
- C. Skin allergy testing
- D. Serum immunoglobulin E
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D, Serum immunoglobulin E (IgE) testing. This test can help diagnose food allergies, including milk protein allergies, in toddlers presenting with symptoms like skin rashes, hives, abdominal pain, and vomiting after consuming milk products. Skin allergy testing is used for allergies but may not be suitable for this age group due to developmental factors. Lactose intolerance, which is different from a milk allergy, is assessed through a lactose tolerance test, not IgE testing. A complete blood count (CBC) would not provide specific information related to food allergies.
Similar Questions
Access More Features
HESI RN Basic
$89/ 30 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All HESI courses Coverage
- 30 days access
HESI RN Premium
$149.99/ 90 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All HESI courses Coverage
- 30 days access