Nursing Elites

1. After receiving hemodialysis, what is the nurse's priority assessment for a client with chronic kidney disease?

• A. Monitor the client's potassium level.
• B. Assess the client's blood pressure.
• C. Check the client's hemoglobin and hematocrit levels.
• D. Monitor for signs of infection.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to monitor the client's potassium level. During hemodialysis, there is a risk of potassium shifting, which can lead to life-threatening arrhythmias if not properly managed. Assessing the potassium level is crucial to prevent complications. While assessing blood pressure, checking hemoglobin and hematocrit levels, and monitoring for signs of infection are important aspects of care for a client with chronic kidney disease, monitoring potassium levels takes precedence due to its immediate life-threatening potential post-dialysis.

2. A male client with heart failure presents with shortness of breath, audible wheezing, and pink frothy sputum. What action should the nurse take?

• A. Consult with the charge nurse regarding morphine prescription.
• B. Administer the dose of morphine sulfate as prescribed.
• C. Withhold morphine until dyspnea resolves.
• D. Review the need for the prescription with the healthcare provider.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Administer the dose of morphine sulfate as prescribed. In heart failure, morphine helps reduce anxiety, preload, and afterload on the heart, improving oxygenation. The client's symptoms indicate acute decompensated heart failure, and morphine should be administered promptly to relieve distress. Consulting the charge nurse (Choice A) or withholding morphine (Choice C) would delay necessary treatment. Reviewing the prescription with the healthcare provider (Choice D) is not needed in this acute situation.

3. A client with pancreatitis reports severe pain after eating fatty foods. What intervention should the nurse implement?

• A. Encourage the client to eat small, low-fat meals.
• B. Administer antispasmodic medication as prescribed.
• C. Instruct the client to avoid eating until the pain subsides.
• D. Increase the client’s intake of high-protein foods.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In pancreatitis, pain after consuming fatty foods is common due to increased pancreatic stimulation. Administering antispasmodics is the appropriate intervention as it can help reduce the pain by decreasing pancreatic enzyme secretion. Encouraging the client to eat small, low-fat meals (Choice A) is beneficial in managing pancreatitis symptoms but does not directly address the acute pain. Instructing the client to avoid eating until the pain subsides (Choice C) may lead to nutritional deficiencies and is not the best approach. Increasing high-protein foods intake (Choice D) is not recommended as it can put additional strain on the pancreas.

4. A client with asthma is experiencing wheezing. What is the nurse’s priority intervention?

• A. Administer a bronchodilator immediately.
• B. Increase the client's oxygen flow rate.
• C. Perform a chest x-ray to assess lung function.
• D. Place the client in a high Fowler’s position.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Administer a bronchodilator immediately. Wheezing in a client with asthma indicates bronchoconstriction, which can compromise airflow. Administering a bronchodilator is the priority intervention as it helps to open the airways, relieve bronchoconstriction, and improve breathing. Increasing the oxygen flow rate (choice B) may be necessary but is not the priority when the airways are constricted. Performing a chest x-ray (choice C) is not the immediate action needed in this situation. Placing the client in a high Fowler's position (choice D) may provide some relief, but administering a bronchodilator to address the bronchoconstriction is the priority intervention.

5. What are the primary pathophysiological mechanisms responsible for ascites in liver failure?

• A. Decreased liver enzymes.
• B. Increased hydrostatic pressure in portal circulation.
• C. High bilirubin levels.
• D. Fluid shifts due to decreased serum proteins.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Increased hydrostatic pressure in portal circulation. Ascites in liver failure is primarily caused by fluid shifts from the intravascular space to the interstitial space due to increased hydrostatic pressure in the portal circulation. Choice A is incorrect as ascites is not caused by decreased liver enzymes. Choice C is incorrect as high bilirubin levels are not the primary mechanism for ascites in liver failure. Choice D is incorrect as fluid shifts in ascites are due to decreased serum proteins, not increased serum proteins.

Similar Questions