a client with chronic kidney disease is receiving hemodialysis what is the nurses priority assessment following dialysis
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Nursing Elites

HESI RN

HESI 799 RN Exit Exam Capstone

1. After receiving hemodialysis, what is the nurse's priority assessment for a client with chronic kidney disease?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to monitor the client's potassium level. During hemodialysis, there is a risk of potassium shifting, which can lead to life-threatening arrhythmias if not properly managed. Assessing the potassium level is crucial to prevent complications. While assessing blood pressure, checking hemoglobin and hematocrit levels, and monitoring for signs of infection are important aspects of care for a client with chronic kidney disease, monitoring potassium levels takes precedence due to its immediate life-threatening potential post-dialysis.

2. A client receiving chemotherapy has severe neutropenia. What snack is best for the nurse to recommend?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: For a client with severe neutropenia, it is crucial to recommend a snack that is low in bacteria to reduce the risk of infection. Yogurt with fresh berries is an excellent choice as it is not only low in bacteria but also provides nutritional value. Baked apples with raisins (choice A) may not be ideal as the preparation process could introduce bacteria. Avocados and cheese (choice C) may not be the best option due to their potential bacterial content. Fresh fruit salad (choice D) may have a higher risk of bacterial contamination compared to yogurt with fresh berries.

3. An adult male is brought to the emergency department following a motorcycle accident, presenting with periorbital bruising and bloody drainage from both ears. Which assessment finding warrants immediate intervention by the nurse?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In this scenario, the patient's presentation with periorbital bruising and bloody ear drainage suggests a basilar skull fracture. Projectile vomiting, as described in choice D, is concerning for increased intracranial pressure due to the skull fracture. This finding warrants immediate intervention to prevent further neurological compromise. Choices A, B, and C are not the priority in this situation. Rebound abdominal tenderness (choice A) is indicative of intra-abdominal injury but is not as urgent as managing potential intracranial issues. Diminished breath sounds (choice B) and rib pain with deep inspiration (choice C) may suggest underlying chest injuries, which need attention but are not as immediately life-threatening as increased intracranial pressure.

4. A client with chronic kidney disease is prescribed a low-potassium diet. Which food should the nurse instruct the client to avoid?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Bananas. Bananas are high in potassium and should be avoided in clients who are on a low-potassium diet due to chronic kidney disease. Foods like apples and white bread are low in potassium and are safer choices. Carrots are also low in potassium and do not need to be avoided in this case.

5. A client is receiving 30 mg of enoxaparin subcutaneously twice a day. In assessing adverse effects of the medication, which serum laboratory value is most important for the nurse to monitor?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Platelet count. Enoxaparin can cause heparin-induced thrombocytopenia (HIT), making it crucial to monitor the platelet count for signs of thrombocytopenia. Monitoring the platelet count helps in early detection of this serious adverse effect. Choices A, C, and D are less relevant in this context. Hemoglobin level checks are more indicative of bleeding issues rather than thrombocytopenia caused by enoxaparin. Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) and prothrombin time (PT) are less impacted by enoxaparin and are not typically used to monitor for HIT.

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