Nursing Elites

1. After receiving hemodialysis, what is the nurse's priority assessment for a client with chronic kidney disease?

• A. Monitor the client's potassium level.
• B. Assess the client's blood pressure.
• C. Check the client's hemoglobin and hematocrit levels.
• D. Monitor for signs of infection.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to monitor the client's potassium level. During hemodialysis, there is a risk of potassium shifting, which can lead to life-threatening arrhythmias if not properly managed. Assessing the potassium level is crucial to prevent complications. While assessing blood pressure, checking hemoglobin and hematocrit levels, and monitoring for signs of infection are important aspects of care for a client with chronic kidney disease, monitoring potassium levels takes precedence due to its immediate life-threatening potential post-dialysis.

2. A male client with a history of deep vein thrombosis (DVT) is admitted with new onset shortness of breath and a productive cough. What is the nurse's priority action?

• A. Administer prescribed anticoagulant.
• B. Notify the healthcare provider.
• C. Auscultate lung sounds.
• D. Prepare for chest physiotherapy.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Administering an anticoagulant is the nurse's priority action in this situation. Given the client's history of DVT and the presentation of new onset shortness of breath and a productive cough, there is a concern for a pulmonary embolism, which is a life-threatening complication of DVT. Administering an anticoagulant promptly is crucial to prevent further clot formation and to manage the existing clot, reducing the risk of pulmonary embolism. While auscultating lung sounds and preparing for chest physiotherapy are important actions in respiratory assessment and management, the priority in this case is to address the potential complication of a pulmonary embolism by administering the anticoagulant. Notifying the healthcare provider can be done after initiating the immediate intervention of anticoagulant therapy.

3. An older client with a long history of coronary artery disease, HTN, and HF arrives in the ED in respiratory distress. The healthcare provider prescribes furosemide IV. Which therapeutic response to furosemide should the nurse expect in the client with acute HF?

• A. Decreased heart rate
• B. Improved blood pressure
• C. Increased urine output
• D. Reduced preload

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Reduced preload. Furosemide is a diuretic that reduces fluid overload in heart failure, which lowers the preload (the volume of blood in the ventricles before contraction). By reducing this volume, furosemide improves symptoms of heart failure. While furosemide may lead to increased urine output and lower blood pressure, these effects are secondary to the reduction in preload. Decreased heart rate is not a direct effect of furosemide in heart failure.

4. The nurse is planning to administer two medications at 0900. Which property of the drugs indicates a need to monitor the client for toxicity?

• A. Short half-life
• B. High therapeutic index
• C. Highly protein-bound
• D. Low bioavailability

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C, 'Highly protein-bound.' Drugs that are highly protein-bound can displace from protein-binding sites, leading to increased free drug levels in the blood, which can result in toxicity. Monitoring the client for toxicity is crucial when administering highly protein-bound drugs. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. A short half-life does not necessarily indicate a need for monitoring toxicity; a high therapeutic index indicates a wide safety margin between the effective dose and the toxic dose, reducing the risk of toxicity; low bioavailability refers to the fraction of the drug that reaches the systemic circulation unchanged and does not directly relate to the risk of toxicity.

5. A client with a history of deep vein thrombosis (DVT) is prescribed warfarin. Which laboratory value should the nurse monitor to assess the therapeutic effect of this medication?

• A. Platelet count
• B. Prothrombin time (PT)
• C. White blood cell count
• D. Hemoglobin level

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Prothrombin time (PT) is the correct laboratory value to monitor to assess the therapeutic effect of warfarin. Warfarin works by inhibiting clotting factors, and PT measures the time it takes for blood to clot. Monitoring PT helps ensure that the medication is working effectively to prevent clot formation without causing excessive bleeding. Platelet count (Choice A) is not specific to warfarin therapy and assesses the number of platelets in the blood. White blood cell count (Choice C) and hemoglobin level (Choice D) are not directly related to monitoring the therapeutic effect of warfarin.

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