HESI RN
Community Health HESI 2023 Quizlet
1. The healthcare provider is assessing a client who has a new arteriovenous fistula in the left arm for hemodialysis. Which finding requires immediate intervention?
- A. A thrill is palpable on the fistula.
- B. The client's arm is warm and red.
- C. The fistula has a bruit on auscultation.
- D. There is no bruit on auscultation.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. Warmth and redness in the client's arm suggest infection or thrombosis of the arteriovenous fistula, which requires immediate intervention to prevent complications. A thrill (A) is a normal finding in a functional arteriovenous fistula, indicating good blood flow. A bruit (C) is also a normal finding on auscultation of a functioning arteriovenous fistula, indicating proper blood flow. The absence of a bruit (D) may indicate a non-functioning fistula, which would need further evaluation but does not require immediate intervention as warmth and redness do.
2. A homeless client with alcohol dependency will be dismissed from the emergency department in 24 hours. The nurse notes that a tuberculin skin test was prescribed by the healthcare provider. What intervention is most important for the nurse to implement prior to discharge?
- A. Identify how the client will follow-up to have the results read
- B. Give the client written information about the tuberculosis test
- C. Determine if the client understands the purpose of the tuberculin test
- D. Explain to the client results should be read between 48 and 72 hours
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The most important intervention for the nurse to implement prior to the discharge of a homeless client with alcohol dependency who had a tuberculin skin test prescribed is to identify how the client will follow-up to have the results read. This is crucial to ensure proper diagnosis and treatment. Providing written information (Choice B) is helpful but not as critical as ensuring the follow-up plan. Determining if the client understands the purpose of the test (Choice C) is important but not as immediate as ensuring the follow-up plan. Explaining when the results should be read (Choice D) is important, but the priority is to make sure the client has a plan in place for follow-up.
3. The nurse is performing a functional assessment for a client requiring nursing home care. Which action should the nurse implement?
- A. Question the client about the frequency of falls.
- B. Request the client to lie still during the assessment.
- C. Ask how often episodes of sundowning are experienced.
- D. Assist the client with values clarification about end-of-life care.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Question the client about the frequency of falls. In the elderly population, falls are a significant risk factor that can impact their functional abilities and safety. By assessing the frequency of falls, the nurse can identify potential risks and implement interventions to prevent future falls. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because they do not directly address the primary focus of a functional assessment for nursing home care, which is to evaluate the client's functional status and identify areas that may require assistance or intervention.
4. A client who is taking ciprofloxacin (Cipro) reports to the nurse of having a loss of appetite and a metallic taste in the mouth. What action should the nurse implement?
- A. Reassure the client that these are common side effects of ciprofloxacin.
- B. Instruct the client to take ciprofloxacin with food.
- C. Notify the healthcare provider of the client's symptoms.
- D. Encourage the client to increase fluid intake.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take when a client on ciprofloxacin reports loss of appetite and a metallic taste in the mouth is to notify the healthcare provider of the client's symptoms. These symptoms could indicate a need for a change in medication or additional treatment, which the healthcare provider would need to assess. Instructing the client to take ciprofloxacin with food (choice B) may help with gastrointestinal upset but will not address the reported symptoms. Reassuring the client (choice A) is important for providing emotional support but does not address the need for further evaluation. Encouraging increased fluid intake (choice D) is generally beneficial but may not directly address the specific side effects reported.
5. The healthcare provider is preparing to administer atropine, an anticholinergic, to a client scheduled for a cholecystectomy. The client asks the provider to explain the reason for the prescribed medication. What response is best for the provider to provide?
- A. To increase gastric motility.
- B. To decrease the risk of bradycardia during surgery.
- C. To reduce secretions.
- D. To prevent nausea and vomiting.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Atropine, an anticholinergic medication, is used preoperatively to prevent bradycardia by increasing the automaticity of the sinoatrial node during surgical anesthesia. Choice A is incorrect because atropine does not affect gastric motility. Choice C is incorrect as atropine is not primarily used to reduce secretions. Choice D is also incorrect because preventing nausea and vomiting is not the primary purpose of administering atropine in this context.