Nursing Elites

1. A public health nurse is evaluating a program designed to reduce the incidence of sexually transmitted infections (STIs) among teenagers. Which outcome indicates that the program is successful?

• A. increased attendance at educational sessions on STIs
• B. higher rates of condom use among teenagers
• C. more teenagers seeking testing for STIs
• D. greater knowledge of STI prevention methods

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: higher rates of condom use among teenagers. This outcome indicates that the teenagers are adopting safer sexual practices, which can effectively reduce the incidence of STIs. Increased attendance at educational sessions (Choice A) may show interest but does not directly reflect behavior change. More teenagers seeking testing for STIs (Choice C) indicates awareness but not necessarily prevention. Greater knowledge of STI prevention methods (Choice D) is valuable but does not guarantee behavioral change like increased condom use.

2. The healthcare provider is assessing a client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD). Which finding requires immediate intervention?

• A. Oxygen saturation of 88%.
• B. Use of accessory muscles for breathing.
• C. Respiratory rate of 26 breaths per minute.
• D. Barrel-shaped chest.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A respiratory rate of 26 breaths per minute is an abnormal finding and indicates that the client is experiencing respiratory distress, requiring immediate intervention. This rapid respiratory rate can signify inadequate oxygenation and ventilation. Oxygen saturation of 88% is low but not as immediately concerning as a high respiratory rate, which indicates the body is compensating for respiratory distress. The use of accessory muscles for breathing and a barrel-shaped chest are typical findings in clients with COPD but do not indicate an immediate need for intervention as they are more chronic in nature and may be seen in stable COPD patients.

3. A primipara with a breech presentation is in the transition phase of labor. The nurse visualizes the perineum and sees the umbilical cord extruding from the introitus. In which position should the nurse place the client?

• A. Supine with the foot of the bed raised.
• B. On the left side with legs elevated.
• C. On the right side with legs elevated.
• D. Prone with head elevated.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In the scenario of a primipara with a breech presentation and a prolapsed umbilical cord, the nurse should place the client in the supine position with the foot of the bed raised (Trendelenburg position). This position helps alleviate gravitational pressure by the fetus on the cord, preventing compression and reducing the risk of cord prolapse complications. Placing the client on the left or right side with legs elevated or in a prone position with the head elevated would not be appropriate in this situation, as they do not effectively relieve the pressure on the umbilical cord.

4. During which home visit performed by a registered nurse or a practical nurse can the home healthcare agency expect Medicare reimbursement for documenting a skilled care service provided?

• A. 13-18 years of age
• B. 11-12 years of age
• C. 18-24 months of age
• D. 4-6 years of age

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: 4-6 years of age. According to current CDC guidelines, a child receiving the measles, mumps, rubella (MMR) vaccine at 12 months of age should plan to receive the MMR booster between 4-6 years of age. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect as they do not align with the CDC's recommended age range for the MMR vaccine booster. It is crucial for healthcare providers to stay updated with current guidelines to ensure the timely administration of vaccines for optimal protection.

5. A client who is receiving intravenous heparin therapy has an activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) of 90 seconds. Which action should the nurse take?

• A. Continue the heparin infusion as prescribed.
• B. Decrease the heparin infusion rate.
• C. Increase the heparin infusion rate.
• D. Stop the heparin infusion and notify the healthcare provider.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: An aPTT of 90 seconds is significantly elevated, indicating a high risk of bleeding due to excessive anticoagulation. In this case, the heparin infusion should be stopped immediately to prevent further anticoagulation and an increased bleeding risk. Notifying the healthcare provider is essential to discuss alternative anticoagulation strategies or interventions. Continuing heparin therapy without action could lead to severe bleeding complications. Decreasing or increasing the heparin infusion rate would exacerbate the risk of bleeding, making options A, B, and C incorrect.

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