a public health nurse is evaluating a program designed to reduce the incidence of sexually transmitted infections stis among teenagers which outcome i
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Community Health HESI Quizlet

1. A public health nurse is evaluating a program designed to reduce the incidence of sexually transmitted infections (STIs) among teenagers. Which outcome indicates that the program is successful?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: higher rates of condom use among teenagers. This outcome indicates that the teenagers are adopting safer sexual practices, which can effectively reduce the incidence of STIs. Increased attendance at educational sessions (Choice A) may show interest but does not directly reflect behavior change. More teenagers seeking testing for STIs (Choice C) indicates awareness but not necessarily prevention. Greater knowledge of STI prevention methods (Choice D) is valuable but does not guarantee behavioral change like increased condom use.

2. A nurse starts classes for clients with type 2 diabetes. Which information would the nurse use as an outcome evaluation for the class?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: A reduction in fasting blood glucose levels indicates the effectiveness of the diabetes management education provided. Monitoring blood glucose levels is a crucial aspect of diabetes management, and a decrease in average readings signifies improvement in managing blood sugar levels. Choices A, C, and D are not direct outcome evaluations related to the effectiveness of the education provided in managing diabetes. Parking convenience, attendance, and teaching strategies are not direct indicators of the impact on the clients' health outcomes.

3. A client with a history of alcohol abuse is admitted with acute pancreatitis. Which assessment finding requires immediate intervention?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In a client with acute pancreatitis and a history of alcohol abuse, a temperature of 101°F (38.3°C) can indicate infection, which is a serious complication requiring immediate intervention. Elevated amylase and lipase levels are common in acute pancreatitis but do not directly indicate the need for urgent intervention. A calcium level of 8.5 mg/dL is within the normal range and does not require immediate action in this context.

4. The healthcare provider is assessing a client with a suspected myocardial infarction. Which finding requires immediate intervention?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Shortness of breath is a critical sign that can indicate heart failure or pulmonary edema, conditions that require immediate intervention in a client with a suspected myocardial infarction. Chest pain radiating to the left arm is a classic symptom of a myocardial infarction but may not necessitate immediate intervention compared to severe shortness of breath. Nausea and vomiting can be present in myocardial infarction but are not as urgent as shortness of breath. Diaphoresis, or sweating, is a common symptom of a myocardial infarction but may not be as immediately concerning as significant shortness of breath.

5. A 6-year-old child is alert but quiet when brought to the emergency center with periorbital ecchymosis and ecchymosis behind the ears. The nurse suspects potential child abuse and continues to assess the child for additional manifestations of a basilar skull fracture. What assessment finding would be consistent with the basilar skull fracture?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Rhinorrhea or otorrhea with halo sign. Raccoon eyes (periorbital ecchymosis) and Battle's sign (ecchymosis behind the ear) are signs of a basilar skull fracture, indicating the need to assess for possible meningeal tears that manifest as a halo sign with cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) leakage from the ears or nose. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because blurred vision, shoulder pain, and abdominal pain are not typically associated with a basilar skull fracture.

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