Nursing Elites

1. What do crackles heard on lung auscultation indicate?

• A. Cyanosis.
• B. Bronchospasm.
• C. Airway narrowing.
• D. Fluid-filled alveoli.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Crackles heard on lung auscultation are caused by the popping open of small airways that are filled with fluid. This is commonly associated with conditions such as pulmonary edema, pneumonia, or heart failure. Cyanosis (Choice A) is a bluish discoloration of the skin and mucous membranes due to low oxygen levels in the blood, not directly related to crackles. Bronchospasm (Choice B) refers to the constriction of the airway smooth muscle, causing difficulty in breathing but does not typically produce crackles. Airway narrowing (Choice C) can lead to wheezing but is not directly linked to crackles heard on auscultation.

2. The nurse is preparing to administer doses of hydrochlorothiazide (HydroDIURIL) and digoxin (Lanoxin) to a patient who has heart failure. The patient reports having blurred vision. The nurse notes a heart rate of 60 beats per minute and a blood pressure of 140/78 mm Hg. Which action will the nurse take?

• A. Administer the medications and request an order for serum electrolytes.
• B. Give both medications and evaluate serum blood glucose frequently.
• C. Hold the digoxin and notify the provider.
• D. Hold the hydrochlorothiazide and notify the provider.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In this scenario, the patient is experiencing symptoms of digoxin toxicity, such as blurred vision and bradycardia. When thiazide diuretics like hydrochlorothiazide are taken with digoxin, the patient is at risk of digoxin toxicity due to the potential for thiazides to cause hypokalemia. Therefore, the correct action for the nurse to take is to hold the digoxin and notify the provider. Administering the medications without addressing the potential toxicity could worsen the patient's condition. Requesting serum electrolytes (Choice A) may be necessary but holding the digoxin takes priority. Evaluating serum blood glucose (Choice B) is not relevant to the current situation. Holding hydrochlorothiazide (Choice D) is not the best option as the primary concern is the digoxin toxicity that needs to be addressed promptly.

3. The client with peripheral artery disease has been prescribed clopidogrel (Plavix). The nurse understands that more teaching is necessary when the client states which of the following?

• A. I should not be surprised if I bruise more easily or if my gums bleed a little when brushing my teeth.
• B. It is important to take this medicine with food to enhance its effectiveness and minimize stomach upset.
• C. I should stop taking Plavix if it makes me feel weak and dizzy.
• D. The doctor prescribed this medicine to make my platelets less likely to stick together and help prevent clots from forming.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. Weakness, dizziness, and headache are common adverse effects of Plavix and should be reported. It is essential to consult a physician before stopping Plavix as it plays a crucial role in preventing platelets from sticking together and forming clots. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Choice A is a common side effect of Plavix and does not indicate a need for further teaching. Choice B is incorrect because taking Plavix with or without food can affect its absorption and effectiveness. Choice D correctly explains the purpose of prescribing Plavix to prevent clot formation.

4. The client had a thyroidectomy 24 hours ago and reports experiencing numbness and tingling of the face. Which intervention should the nurse implement?

• A. Open and prepare the tracheostomy kit.
• B. Inspect the neck for an increase in swelling.
• C. Monitor for the presence of Chvostek's sign.
• D. Assess lung sounds for laryngeal stridor.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Monitor for the presence of Chvostek's sign. Chvostek's sign is a clinical indicator of hypocalcemia, a common complication after thyroidectomy. Numbness and tingling around the face are associated with hypocalcemia due to potential damage to the parathyroid glands during surgery, leading to decreased calcium levels. Inspecting the neck for swelling (choice B) is important but does not directly address the presenting symptoms. Opening and preparing the tracheostomy kit (choice A) is not necessary based on the client's current symptoms. Assessing lung sounds for laryngeal stridor (choice D) is not directly related to the client's reported numbness and tingling of the face.

5. A client with acute kidney injury (AKI) weighing 50kg and having a potassium level of 6.7mEq/L (6.7mmol/L) is admitted to the hospital. Which prescribed medication should the nurse administer first?

• A. Calcium acetate, one tablet by mouth
• B. Sodium polystyrene sulfonate, 15 grams by mouth
• C. Epoetin Alfa, recombinant, 2,500 units subcutaneously
• D. Sevelamer, one tablet by mouth

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In a client with acute kidney injury (AKI) and hyperkalemia, the priority intervention is to lower the potassium level swiftly. Sodium polystyrene sulfonate is a medication used to treat hyperkalemia by exchanging sodium ions for potassium ions in the intestines, reducing the overall potassium levels. Calcium acetate, epoetin alfa, and sevelamer are not indicated for the immediate reduction of potassium levels in hyperkalemia. Calcium acetate is used to control phosphate levels, epoetin alfa is a medication to treat anemia by stimulating red blood cell production, and sevelamer is a phosphate binder used in chronic kidney disease to reduce phosphate levels.

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