the nurse is assessing a client 2 hours postoperatively after a femoral popliteal bypass the upper leg dressing becomes saturated with blood the nurse
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Nursing Elites

HESI RN

HESI Nutrition Exam

1. The nurse is assessing a client 2 hours postoperatively after a femoral popliteal bypass. The upper leg dressing becomes saturated with blood. The nurse's first action should be to

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In this scenario where the upper leg dressing becomes saturated with blood post-femoral popliteal bypass, the nurse's first action should be to apply pressure at the bleeding site. Applying pressure is essential to control hemorrhage and prevent further blood loss. Choice A is incorrect as wrapping the leg with elastic bandages would not address the immediate issue of controlling the bleeding. Choice C is incorrect because reinforcing the dressing and elevating the leg should come after controlling the bleeding. Choice D is incorrect as removing the dressings and re-dressing the incision should only be done after the bleeding is under control to prevent excessive blood loss.

2. The nurse is instructing a 65-year-old female client diagnosed with osteoporosis. The most important instruction regarding exercise would be to

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Exercise by doing weight-bearing activities. Weight-bearing activities help strengthen bones and prevent further bone loss in clients with osteoporosis. This type of exercise includes activities like walking, dancing, and weightlifting, which help improve bone density. Choice B is incorrect because the primary focus should be on bone health, not weight reduction. Choice C is incorrect as avoiding all exercise activities that increase the risk of fracture can lead to muscle weakness and a decline in bone health. Choice D is also incorrect because while strengthening muscles is beneficial, the emphasis for osteoporosis management should be on weight-bearing exercises specifically.

3. The nurse is caring for a child immediately after surgical correction of a ventricular septal defect. Which of the following nursing assessments should be a priority?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Postoperative arrhythmias are a common and potentially serious complication after cardiac surgery, making them a priority to monitor. Assessing for postoperative arrhythmias takes precedence over other assessments like checking nail beds for color and refill, auscultating for pulmonary congestion, or monitoring peripheral pulses as arrhythmias can have immediate and severe implications for the child's health.

4. A client is diagnosed with a spontaneous pneumothorax necessitating the insertion of a chest tube. What is the best explanation for the nurse to provide this client?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'The tube will remove excess air from your chest.' In a spontaneous pneumothorax, air accumulates in the pleural space, causing lung collapse. The chest tube is inserted to remove this excess air, allowing the lung to re-expand. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because the primary purpose of a chest tube in pneumothorax is to evacuate air, not fluid, control air entry, or seal a lung hole.

5. A client with gastroesophageal reflux is receiving teaching from a nurse. Which statement by the client indicates a need for further teaching?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Drinking coffee throughout the day can aggravate gastroesophageal reflux symptoms. Choices A, C, and D are correct statements that can help manage gastroesophageal reflux by avoiding late-night eating, not consuming trigger foods like chocolate, and using milk for relief when experiencing heartburn.

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