a client is diagnosed with methicillin resistant staphylococcus aureus pneumonia what type of isolation is most appropriate for this client
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Nursing Elites

HESI RN

HESI Nutrition Proctored Exam Quizlet

1. A client is diagnosed with methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus pneumonia. What type of isolation is most appropriate for this client?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is 'D: Contact.' Contact precautions are necessary for clients with MRSA pneumonia to prevent the spread of the resistant bacteria. MRSA is primarily spread by direct contact, so using contact precautions, such as wearing gloves and gowns, is essential. Choice A, 'Reverse,' is not a type of isolation precaution. Choice B, 'Airborne,' is not the appropriate isolation for MRSA pneumonia, as MRSA is not transmitted through the airborne route. Choice C, 'Standard precautions,' are important for all clients, but for MRSA pneumonia specifically, contact precautions are more targeted and necessary.

2. During a physical assessment on a client who just had an endotracheal tube inserted, which finding would call for immediate action by the nurse?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A pulse oximetry reading of 88% indicates hypoxemia, which requires immediate intervention to ensure adequate oxygenation. In this scenario, the priority is to address the low oxygen saturation to prevent further complications. Auscultation of bilateral breath sounds is a positive finding as it indicates air entry into both lungs. Mist in the T-piece is expected in clients with an endotracheal tube, and the inability to speak is common due to the tube's placement.

3. A client with pneumococcal pneumonia had been started on antibiotics 16 hours ago. During the nurse's initial evening rounds, the nurse notices a foul smell in the room. The client makes all of these statements during their conversation. Which statement would alert the nurse to a complication?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Coughing up foul-tasting, brown, thick sputum suggests a possible abscess or secondary infection, requiring attention. Choice A may indicate pleurisy, but the focus should be on the sputum. Choice C may be non-specific and could be related to the infection or fever. Choice D is non-specific and may be expected during an infection.

4. A client diagnosed with cirrhosis of the liver and ascites is receiving Spironolactone (Aldactone). The nurse understands that this medication spares the elimination of which element?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Potassium. Spironolactone is a potassium-sparing diuretic, which means it helps retain potassium while eliminating sodium. This is beneficial for patients with cirrhosis and ascites as they are at risk of low potassium levels. Choice A, Sodium, is incorrect as Spironolactone does not spare the elimination of sodium but rather helps eliminate it. Choice C, Phosphate, is incorrect as Spironolactone does not directly affect phosphate levels. Choice D, Albumin, is incorrect as Spironolactone does not spare the elimination of albumin.

5. After a myocardial infarction, a client is placed on a sodium-restricted diet. When the nurse is teaching the client about the diet, which meal plan would be the most appropriate?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The most appropriate meal plan for a client following a myocardial infarction and placed on a sodium-restricted diet should include fresh ingredients with low sodium content to promote heart health. Option D, which consists of 3 oz. turkey, 1 fresh sweet potato, 1/2 cup fresh green beans, milk, and 1 orange, aligns best with these requirements. Option A contains canned beets, which are typically high in sodium. Option B includes canned salmon, which may have added sodium. Option C has a bologna sandwich, which is processed and high in sodium. Therefore, Option D is the most suitable choice for a client needing a low-sodium diet after a heart attack.

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