Nursing Elites

1. A client is diagnosed with methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus pneumonia. What type of isolation is most appropriate for this client?

• A. Reverse
• B. Airborne
• C. Standard precautions
• D. Contact

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is 'D: Contact.' Contact precautions are necessary for clients with MRSA pneumonia to prevent the spread of the resistant bacteria. MRSA is primarily spread by direct contact, so using contact precautions, such as wearing gloves and gowns, is essential. Choice A, 'Reverse,' is not a type of isolation precaution. Choice B, 'Airborne,' is not the appropriate isolation for MRSA pneumonia, as MRSA is not transmitted through the airborne route. Choice C, 'Standard precautions,' are important for all clients, but for MRSA pneumonia specifically, contact precautions are more targeted and necessary.

2. The nurse is caring for a client receiving a blood transfusion who develops urticaria half an hour after the transfusion has begun. What is the first action the nurse should take?

• A. Stop the infusion
• B. Slow the rate of infusion
• C. Take vital signs and observe for further deterioration
• D. Administer Benadryl and continue the infusion

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In the scenario of a client developing urticaria during a blood transfusion, the immediate priority for the nurse is to stop the infusion. This action is crucial to prevent further administration of the allergen causing the reaction. Slowing the rate of infusion (Choice B) may not be sufficient to address the allergic response effectively. While monitoring vital signs (Choice C) is important, stopping the infusion takes precedence to prevent worsening of the reaction. Administering Benadryl (Choice D) should be considered after stopping the infusion, following the healthcare provider's orders, and assessing the client's condition.

3. A nurse is contributing to the plan of care of a client who has had a stroke. The client is experiencing severe dysphagia with choking and coughing while eating. Which of the following nutritional therapies should the nurse expect to include in the plan of care?

• A. NPO until dysphagia subsides
• B. Supplements via NG tube
• C. Initiation of total parenteral nutrition
• D. Mechanical soft diet

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Mechanical soft diet. A mechanical soft diet is appropriate for clients with severe dysphagia as it helps reduce the risk of choking and aspiration by providing food that is easier to swallow. Choice A, NPO until dysphagia subsides, may be necessary initially but is not a long-term solution. Choice B, supplements via NG tube, may be considered if the client is unable to meet their nutritional needs orally, but it does not address the texture modification needed for dysphagia. Choice C, initiation of total parenteral nutrition, is typically reserved for clients who cannot tolerate any oral intake and is not the first-line option for dysphagia management.

4. After a myocardial infarction, a client is placed on a sodium-restricted diet. When the nurse is teaching the client about the diet, which meal plan would be the most appropriate?

• A. 3 oz. broiled fish, 1 baked potato, 1/2 cup canned beets, 1 orange, and milk
• B. 3 oz. canned salmon, fresh broccoli, 1 biscuit, tea, and 1 apple
• C. A bologna sandwich, fresh eggplant, 2 oz fresh fruit, tea, and apple juice
• D. 3 oz. turkey, 1 fresh sweet potato, 1/2 cup fresh green beans, milk, and 1 orange

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. A meal of turkey, sweet potato, green beans, milk, and an orange is low in sodium and suitable for a post-MI diet. Choice A includes a baked potato and canned beets, which are higher in sodium. Choice B includes canned salmon, which can be high in sodium. Choice C includes a bologna sandwich, which is also high in sodium compared to the other options.

5. Which information is a priority for the client to reinforce after intravenous pyelography?

• A. Eat a light diet for the rest of the day
• B. Rest for the next 24 hours as the preparation and test are tiring.
• C. During waking hours, drink at least 1 8-ounce glass of fluid every hour for the next 2 days
• D. Measure urine output for the next day and immediately notify the healthcare provider if it decreases.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: After intravenous pyelography, monitoring urine output is crucial to assess kidney function and detect any early signs of complications. Decreased urine output could indicate a problem with kidney function or potential complications from the procedure. While rest and hydration are important, the priority lies in monitoring urine output for any abnormalities. Eating a light diet may be recommended, but it is not the priority post-procedure instruction.

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