Nursing Elites

1. For a client with chronic kidney disease having a hemoglobin level of 8.0 g/dL, which intervention should the nurse perform first?

• A. Administer erythropoietin as ordered
• B. Monitor the client's blood pressure
• C. Monitor the client's oxygen saturation level
• D. Assess the client for signs of fatigue

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Administering erythropoietin is the priority intervention for a client with chronic kidney disease and a low hemoglobin level. Erythropoietin stimulates red blood cell production, helping to manage anemia in these clients. Monitoring blood pressure, oxygen saturation level, and assessing for signs of fatigue are important aspects of care but addressing the anemia by administering erythropoietin takes precedence to improve oxygen-carrying capacity and overall well-being.

2. The nurse is caring for a client in atrial fibrillation. The atrial heart rate is 250, and the ventricular rate is controlled at 75. Which of the following findings is cause for the most concern?

• A. Diminished bowel sounds
• B. Loss of appetite
• C. A cold, pale lower leg
• D. Tachypnea

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A cold, pale lower leg is the most concerning finding as it indicates poor blood flow, potentially suggesting a serious circulatory problem that requires immediate attention. Diminished bowel sounds, loss of appetite, and tachypnea may be relevant but are not as indicative of a critical circulatory issue as a cold, pale lower leg.

3. A client is recovering from a hip replacement and is taking Tylenol #3 every 3 hours for pain. In checking the client, which finding suggests a side effect of the analgesic?

• A. Bruising at the operative site
• B. Elevated heart rate
• C. Decreased platelet count
• D. No bowel movement for 3 days

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. Constipation is a common side effect of Tylenol #3, which contains codeine. Codeine can slow down bowel movements, leading to constipation. Monitoring for constipation and implementing management strategies is crucial. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because bruising at the operative site, elevated heart rate, and decreased platelet count are not commonly associated side effects of Tylenol #3.

4. A nurse is reinforcing nutrition teaching with a client who has osteoporosis. Which of the following food selections should the nurse recommend to increase calcium in the client's diet?

• A. 1 medium apple
• B. 3 oz of lean beef
• C. 1 tbsp of cream cheese
• D. 1 cup of kale

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: 1 cup of kale. Kale is rich in calcium, making it a suitable choice to increase calcium intake for individuals with osteoporosis. While fruits like apples (choice A) are nutritious, they are not high in calcium. Lean beef (choice B) is a good source of protein but not a significant source of calcium. Cream cheese (choice C) is also not a primary source of calcium compared to kale.

5. When assessing a client for signs and symptoms of a fluid volume deficit, the nurse would be most concerned with which finding?

• A. Blood pressure of 90/60 mm Hg
• B. Heart rate of 110 beats per minute
• C. Respiratory rate of 24 breaths per minute
• D. Urine output of 30 mL per hour

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: A low blood pressure of 90/60 mm Hg is a significant finding indicating fluid volume deficit. In fluid volume deficit, the body tries to compensate by increasing heart rate (choice B) to maintain cardiac output. Respiratory rate (choice C) may increase as a compensatory mechanism, but it is not the primary concern in fluid volume deficit. Urine output (choice D) may decrease in response to fluid volume deficit, but it is a late sign and not the most concerning finding.

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