Nursing Elites

1. For a client with chronic kidney disease having a hemoglobin level of 8.0 g/dL, which intervention should the nurse perform first?

• A. Administer erythropoietin as ordered
• B. Monitor the client's blood pressure
• C. Monitor the client's oxygen saturation level
• D. Assess the client for signs of fatigue

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Administering erythropoietin is the priority intervention for a client with chronic kidney disease and a low hemoglobin level. Erythropoietin stimulates red blood cell production, helping to manage anemia in these clients. Monitoring blood pressure, oxygen saturation level, and assessing for signs of fatigue are important aspects of care but addressing the anemia by administering erythropoietin takes precedence to improve oxygen-carrying capacity and overall well-being.

2. While caring for a client who was admitted with myocardial infarction (MI) 2 days ago, the nurse notes today's temperature is 101.1 degrees Fahrenheit (38.5 degrees Celsius). The appropriate nursing intervention is to

• A. Call the health care provider immediately
• B. Administer acetaminophen as ordered as this is normal at this time
• C. Send blood, urine, and sputum for culture
• D. Increase the client's fluid intake

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In this scenario, the nurse should administer acetaminophen as ordered because a slight fever is normal after an MI. This intervention can help manage the fever unless other complications are present. Calling the health care provider immediately is not necessary for a slight fever post-MI. Sending blood, urine, and sputum for culture is not indicated solely based on a slight fever without other symptoms or signs of infection. Increasing fluid intake may be beneficial for various reasons but is not the priority in this situation where managing the fever with acetaminophen is appropriate.

3. A client is receiving total parenteral nutrition (TPN). Which of these interventions should the nurse perform to reduce the risk of infection?

• A. Changing the TPN tubing and solution every 24 hours
• B. Monitoring the TPN infusion rate closely
• C. Keeping the head of the bed elevated
• D. Ensuring the solution is at room temperature before infusing

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to change the TPN tubing and solution every 24 hours to reduce the risk of infection. This practice helps prevent microbial growth and contamination in the TPN solution. Monitoring the infusion rate closely (choice B) is important for preventing metabolic complications but does not directly reduce the risk of infection. Keeping the head of the bed elevated (choice C) is beneficial for preventing aspiration in feeding tube placement but is unrelated to reducing infection risk in TPN. Ensuring the solution is at room temperature before infusing (choice D) is essential for patient comfort and preventing metabolic complications but does not specifically address infection risk reduction.

4. A nurse is reinforcing teaching about foods that enhance iron absorption when consumed with nonheme iron with a client who has iron deficiency anemia. Which of the following foods should the nurse include in the teaching?

• A. Tomato juice
• B. Tea
• C. Milk
• D. Dried beans

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A, Tomato juice. Tomato juice is high in vitamin C, which enhances the absorption of nonheme iron from foods. Vitamin C helps convert nonheme iron to a form that is easier for the body to absorb. Tea (choice B) contains tannins that can inhibit iron absorption. Milk (choice C) contains calcium, which can interfere with iron absorption. Dried beans (choice D) are a good source of nonheme iron but do not enhance iron absorption when consumed with nonheme iron.

5. Why is it important for the healthcare provider to monitor blood pressure in clients receiving antipsychotic drugs?

• A. Orthostatic hypotension is a common side effect.
• B. Most antipsychotic drugs cause elevated blood pressure.
• C. This provides information on the amount of sodium allowed in the diet.
• D. It will indicate the need to institute anti-parkinsonian drugs.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A because monitoring for orthostatic hypotension is crucial when clients are receiving antipsychotic drugs since it is a common side effect. Orthostatic hypotension can lead to symptoms like dizziness and falls, making it essential to monitor blood pressure regularly. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because most antipsychotic drugs do not typically cause elevated blood pressure, monitoring blood pressure is not directly related to the amount of sodium in the diet, and blood pressure monitoring is not primarily used to determine the need for anti-parkinsonian drugs in clients receiving antipsychotic medications.

Similar Questions