Nursing Elites

1. For a client with chronic kidney disease having a hemoglobin level of 8.0 g/dL, which intervention should the nurse perform first?

• A. Administer erythropoietin as ordered
• B. Monitor the client's blood pressure
• C. Monitor the client's oxygen saturation level
• D. Assess the client for signs of fatigue

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Administering erythropoietin is the priority intervention for a client with chronic kidney disease and a low hemoglobin level. Erythropoietin stimulates red blood cell production, helping to manage anemia in these clients. Monitoring blood pressure, oxygen saturation level, and assessing for signs of fatigue are important aspects of care but addressing the anemia by administering erythropoietin takes precedence to improve oxygen-carrying capacity and overall well-being.

2. A nurse is reinforcing discharge teaching with a client who has acute pancreatitis and a prescription for fat-soluble vitamin supplements. Which of the following supplements should the nurse include in the teaching?

• A. Vitamin A
• B. Vitamin B1
• C. Vitamin C
• D. Vitamin B12

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is Vitamin A. Fat-soluble vitamins essential for patients with pancreatitis include A, D, E, and K, aiding in proper nutrient absorption. Vitamin B1 (Choice B), also known as thiamine, is a water-soluble vitamin and not a fat-soluble one. Vitamin C (Choice C) is another water-soluble vitamin and not a fat-soluble one. Vitamin B12 (Choice D) is also a water-soluble vitamin and not one of the fat-soluble vitamins crucial for patients with pancreatitis.

3. A client has been diagnosed with Zollinger-Ellison syndrome. Which information is most important for the nurse to reinforce with the client?

• A. It is a condition in which one or more tumors, called gastrinomas, form in the pancreas or in the upper part of the small intestine (duodenum).
• B. It is critical to promptly report any findings of peptic ulcers to your health care provider.
• C. Treatment consists of medications to reduce acid and heal any peptic ulcers and, if possible, surgery to remove any tumors.
• D. The average age at diagnosis is 50 years, and peptic ulcers may occur in unusual areas of the stomach or intestine.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Prompt reporting of peptic ulcers is crucial in managing Zollinger-Ellison syndrome to prevent complications and guide treatment. While choices A, C, and D provide relevant information about the condition and its treatment, the most important aspect in the client's care is the prompt reporting of peptic ulcers. This is because untreated peptic ulcers in Zollinger-Ellison syndrome can lead to serious complications such as gastrointestinal bleeding or perforation. Therefore, ensuring timely communication with the healthcare provider is essential for effective management of the condition.

4. Which statement best describes the effects of immobility in children?

• A. Immobility prevents the progression of language and fine motor development
• B. Immobility in children has similar physical effects to those found in adults
• C. Children are more susceptible to the effects of immobility than adults are
• D. Children are likely to have prolonged immobility with subsequent complications

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Immobility in children indeed has physical effects similar to those found in adults. However, it can also significantly impact their development and growth. Choice A is incorrect because immobility does not solely prevent language and fine motor development but affects various aspects. Choice C is incorrect as susceptibility to the effects of immobility may vary between children and adults depending on individual factors. Choice D is incorrect as not all children are likely to have prolonged immobility with subsequent complications.

5. A client is recovering from a hip replacement and is taking Tylenol #3 every 3 hours for pain. In checking the client, which finding suggests a side effect of the analgesic?

• A. Bruising at the operative site
• B. Elevated heart rate
• C. Decreased platelet count
• D. No bowel movement for 3 days

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. Constipation is a common side effect of Tylenol #3, which contains codeine. Codeine can slow down bowel movements, leading to constipation. Monitoring for constipation and implementing management strategies is crucial. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because bruising at the operative site, elevated heart rate, and decreased platelet count are not commonly associated side effects of Tylenol #3.

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