HESI RN
Pediatric HESI Quizlet
1. What is the priority intervention for a 16-year-old client with a history of depression who is brought to the emergency department after taking an overdose of acetaminophen?
- A. Administer activated charcoal
- B. Place the client on continuous cardiac monitoring
- C. Prepare for gastric lavage
- D. Administer N-acetylcysteine as prescribed
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The priority intervention for a client who has taken an acetaminophen overdose is to administer N-acetylcysteine promptly. N-acetylcysteine is the antidote for acetaminophen overdose and helps prevent liver damage. Activated charcoal may be used in certain cases, but N-acetylcysteine takes precedence as it directly counteracts the toxic effects of acetaminophen. Continuous cardiac monitoring and gastric lavage are not the priority interventions for acetaminophen overdose. Administering N-acetylcysteine is crucial to prevent liver damage and address the overdose, making it the most urgent action in this scenario.
2. The healthcare provider is caring for a 6-year-old child diagnosed with glomerulonephritis. Which finding should the healthcare provider report promptly to the healthcare provider?
- A. Dark-colored urine
- B. Mild periorbital edema
- C. Blood pressure of 150/95 mm Hg
- D. Urine output of 250 mL in 24 hours
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Hypertension is a serious complication of glomerulonephritis, as it can lead to further renal damage. A blood pressure reading of 150/95 mm Hg is elevated and should be reported promptly to the healthcare provider for immediate management to prevent complications. Dark-colored urine can be a common symptom of glomerulonephritis due to blood in the urine but is not as urgent as managing hypertension. Mild periorbital edema can also be seen in glomerulonephritis but is not as concerning as elevated blood pressure. Urine output of 250 mL in 24 hours indicates oliguria, which is a concern, but addressing hypertension takes priority to prevent further renal damage.
3. What action should the nurse implement when the infusion of chemotherapy via an implanted medication port is complete for a 16-year-old with acute myelocytic leukemia at the outpatient oncology clinic?
- A. Administer Zofran
- B. Obtain blood samples for RBCs, WBCs, and platelets
- C. Flush mediport with saline and heparin solution
- D. Initiate an infusion of normal saline
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to implement when the chemotherapy infusion is complete is to flush the mediport with saline and heparin solution. This process helps prevent clotting and ensures the patency of the port, which is essential for future medication administrations and blood draws. Administering Zofran (Choice A) is not necessary after completing the chemotherapy infusion. Obtaining blood samples (Choice B) for RBCs, WBCs, and platelets is important but not the immediate action after completing the infusion. Initiating an infusion of normal saline (Choice D) is not required unless there is a specific indication for it.
4. A 16-year-old male client who has been treated in the past for a seizure disorder is admitted to the hospital. Immediately after admission, he begins to have a grand mal seizure. Which action should the nurse take?
- A. Obtain assistance in holding him to prevent injury.
- B. Observe him carefully.
- C. Call a CODE.
- D. Place a padded tongue blade between the teeth.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: During a grand mal seizure, the priority action for the nurse is to ensure the safety of the client. Observing the client carefully allows the nurse to monitor the seizure activity, the client's breathing, and any signs of distress without interfering with the seizure process. Restraining the client or placing objects in the mouth can lead to injury and should be avoided. Calling a CODE is not appropriate for a seizure as it is a normal response to the client's condition.
5. The parents of a 3-year-old boy who has Duchenne muscular dystrophy ask, 'How can our son have this disease? We are wondering if we should have any more children.' What information should the nurse provide to parents?
- A. This is an inherited X-linked recessive disorder, which primarily affects male children in the family
- B. The striated muscle groups of males can be impacted by a lack of the protein dystrophin in their mothers
- C. The male infant had a viral infection that went unnoticed and untreated so muscle damage was incurred
- D. Birth trauma with a breech vaginal birth causes damage to the spinal cord, thus weakening the muscles
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. Duchenne muscular dystrophy is an X-linked recessive disorder that primarily affects males. It is crucial for the nurse to explain to the parents that this condition follows an inheritance pattern where the gene mutation responsible for the disorder is located on the X chromosome. Males have only one X chromosome, so if they inherit the mutated gene, they will develop the disease. Females, on the other hand, have two X chromosomes, providing a backup copy that can compensate for the mutation. Understanding this inheritance pattern is essential for family planning decisions, as the risk of passing on the disorder to future children can be explained based on this genetic inheritance. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because they do not address the genetic basis of Duchenne muscular dystrophy or its inheritance pattern, which is crucial information for the parents in this scenario.
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