Nursing Elites

1. What is the priority intervention for a 16-year-old client with a history of depression who is brought to the emergency department after taking an overdose of acetaminophen?

• A. Administer activated charcoal
• B. Place the client on continuous cardiac monitoring
• C. Prepare for gastric lavage
• D. Administer N-acetylcysteine as prescribed

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The priority intervention for a client who has taken an acetaminophen overdose is to administer N-acetylcysteine promptly. N-acetylcysteine is the antidote for acetaminophen overdose and helps prevent liver damage. Activated charcoal may be used in certain cases, but N-acetylcysteine takes precedence as it directly counteracts the toxic effects of acetaminophen. Continuous cardiac monitoring and gastric lavage are not the priority interventions for acetaminophen overdose. Administering N-acetylcysteine is crucial to prevent liver damage and address the overdose, making it the most urgent action in this scenario.

2. A 3-year-old child is admitted to the hospital with a diagnosis of pneumonia. The nurse notes that the child has a fever and is breathing rapidly. What is the nurse’s priority action?

• A. Administer antipyretic medication
• B. Obtain a chest X-ray
• C. Start the child on oxygen therapy
• D. Notify the healthcare provider

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In a child with pneumonia who is breathing rapidly, the priority action for the nurse is to start the child on oxygen therapy. This intervention is essential to ensure adequate oxygenation, which is crucial in managing respiratory distress and preventing complications associated with hypoxia. Administering antipyretic medication (Choice A) may help reduce the fever but does not address the immediate need for oxygen therapy. Obtaining a chest X-ray (Choice B) is important for diagnosis but providing oxygen is more urgent. Notifying the healthcare provider (Choice D) can be done after initiating oxygen therapy to update on the patient's condition.

3. The nurse is conducting an admission assessment of an 11-month-old infant with CHF who is scheduled for repair of restenosis of coarction of the aorta that was repaired 4 days after birth. Findings include blood pressure higher in the arms than the lower extremities, pounding brachial pulses, and slightly palpable femoral pulses. What pathophysiologic mechanisms support these findings?

• A. The aortic semilunar valve obstructs blood flow into the systemic circulation
• B. The lumen of the aorta reduces the volume of the blood flow to the lower extremities
• C. The pulmonic valve prevents adequate blood volume into the pulmonary circulation
• D. An opening in the atrial septum causes a murmur due to a turbulent left-to-right shunt

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Coarctation of the aorta causes narrowing of the aorta, reducing blood flow to the lower extremities. This narrowing results in higher blood pressure in the arms compared to the lower extremities, along with stronger brachial pulses and slightly palpable femoral pulses. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because they do not align with the pathophysiological mechanism of coarctation of the aorta, which specifically leads to reduced blood flow to the lower extremities.

4. What is the best response for a two-year-old boy who begins to cry when the mother starts to leave?

• A. Let's wave bye-bye to mommy.
• B. Two-year-olds usually stop crying the minute the parent leaves.
• C. Now be a big boy. Mommy will be back soon.
• D. Let's wave bye-bye to mommy.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The best response for a two-year-old boy who begins to cry when the mother starts to leave is to wave bye-bye to mommy. This action helps the child understand that the separation is temporary and gives him a sense of closure. Choice A is the correct answer. Choice B is incorrect as it generalizes the behavior of two-year-olds. Choice C may invalidate the child's feelings by telling him to 'be a big boy' instead of acknowledging his emotions and providing comfort.

5. A 14-year-old client with type 1 diabetes is participating in a school sports event. The nurse provides education to the client about managing blood glucose levels during physical activity. Which statement by the client indicates a need for further teaching?

• A. I should check my blood sugar before and after exercise
• B. I need to eat a snack before I start playing
• C. If my blood sugar is high, I should skip my insulin dose before exercise
• D. I should carry a fast-acting carbohydrate with me during sports

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. Skipping the insulin dose when blood sugar is high before exercise can be harmful. It is essential to manage blood glucose levels carefully during physical activity, which may require adjustments to insulin doses but skipping doses is not recommended. Checking blood sugar before and after exercise (Choice A) helps in monitoring and managing blood glucose levels. Eating a snack before playing (Choice B) can help maintain blood sugar levels during physical activity. Carrying a fast-acting carbohydrate (Choice D) is important in case of low blood sugar during sports to quickly raise glucose levels. Therefore, the client needs further teaching on the importance of not skipping insulin doses even if blood sugar is high before exercise.

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