Nursing Elites

1. After ensuring correct tube placement, what action should the nurse take next when administering medications through a nasogastric tube (NGT) connected to suction?

• A. Clamp the tube for 20 minutes.
• B. Flush the tube with water.
• C. Administer the medications as prescribed.
• D. Crush the tablets and dissolve in sterile water.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: After ensuring the correct placement of the NGT, the nurse should flush the tube with water to prevent any obstructions and ensure proper medication delivery. Flushing the tube is essential before, after, and in between each medication administration. Clamping the tube for 20 minutes should be done after all medications are administered to prevent clogging. Administering medications as prescribed and preparing medications by crushing tablets and dissolving them in sterile water should only be done after the tube has been appropriately flushed to maintain its patency and effectiveness.

2. A client with chronic renal failure is receiving epoetin alfa (Epogen). Which laboratory test should the nurse monitor to evaluate the effectiveness of this medication?

• A. White blood cell count.
• B. Hemoglobin and hematocrit.
• C. Platelet count.
• D. Blood urea nitrogen (BUN) and creatinine.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Hemoglobin and hematocrit. These are the primary laboratory tests to monitor the effectiveness of epoetin alfa (Epogen) in treating anemia. White blood cell count (A), platelet count (C), and blood urea nitrogen (BUN) and creatinine (D) are not directly related to the effects of this medication. Epoetin alfa stimulates the production of red blood cells, so monitoring hemoglobin and hematocrit levels helps assess the response to the treatment.

3. The healthcare provider is assessing several clients prior to surgery. Which factor in a client's history poses the greatest threat for complications to occur during surgery?

• A. Taking birth control pills for the past 2 years
• B. Taking anticoagulants for the past year
• C. Recently completing antibiotic therapy
• D. Having taken laxatives PRN for the last 6 months

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Anticoagulants increase the risk of bleeding during surgery, which can lead to complications such as excessive bleeding and difficulty in achieving hemostasis. This poses a significant threat during a surgical procedure where controlling bleeding is crucial for a successful outcome. The other options (A, C, D) are not as critical as anticoagulants in terms of posing a threat for complications during surgery. Birth control pills, recently completing antibiotic therapy, and using laxatives do not directly impact bleeding risks during surgery compared to anticoagulants.

4. How many drops per minute should a client weighing 182 pounds receive if a nurse mixes 50 mg of Nipride in 250 ml of D5W and plans to administer the solution at a rate of 5 mcg/kg/min? The drip factor is 60 gtt/ml.

• A. 31 gtt/min.
• B. 62 gtt/min.
• C. 93 gtt/min.
• D. 124 gtt/min.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: To determine the drops per minute for the client, first convert the client's weight from pounds to kilograms: 182/2.2 = 82.73 kg. Calculate the dosage by multiplying 5 mcg by the client's weight in kg: 5 mcg/kg/min × 82.73 kg = 413.65 mcg/min. Find the concentration of the solution in mcg/ml by dividing 250 ml by 50,000 mcg (50 mg): 250 ml/50,000 mcg = 200 mcg/ml. As the client needs 413.65 mcg/min and the solution is 200 mcg/ml, the client should receive 2.07 ml per minute. Finally, using the drip factor of 60 gtt/ml, multiply the ml per minute by the drip factor: 60 gtt/ml × 2.07 ml/min = 124.28 gtt/min, which rounds to 124 gtt/min. Therefore, the client should receive 124 drops per minute. Choice D is the correct answer. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because they do not reflect the accurate calculation based on the client's weight, dosage, concentration of the solution, and drip factor.

5. After surgery, a patient has decreased cardiac output. What is a likely observation by the nurse?

• A. Decreased urine output
• B. Increased urine output
• C. Flushing of the skin
• D. Hyperventilation

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A decrease in cardiac output can lead to decreased blood flow to the kidneys, resulting in decreased urine output. The kidneys rely on adequate blood supply to filter waste and produce urine. Therefore, a decreased urine output is a common observation when cardiac output is reduced. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Increased urine output is not typically associated with decreased cardiac output; flushing of the skin is more related to vasodilation, and hyperventilation is not directly linked to decreased cardiac output.

Similar Questions