HESI RN
HESI Fundamentals Practice Exam
1. After ensuring correct tube placement, what action should the nurse take next when administering medications through a nasogastric tube (NGT) connected to suction?
- A. Clamp the tube for 20 minutes.
- B. Flush the tube with water.
- C. Administer the medications as prescribed.
- D. Crush the tablets and dissolve in sterile water.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: After ensuring the correct placement of the NGT, the nurse should flush the tube with water to prevent any obstructions and ensure proper medication delivery. Flushing the tube is essential before, after, and in between each medication administration. Clamping the tube for 20 minutes should be done after all medications are administered to prevent clogging. Administering medications as prescribed and preparing medications by crushing tablets and dissolving them in sterile water should only be done after the tube has been appropriately flushed to maintain its patency and effectiveness.
2. You are assigned to teach a student how to suction an adult patient with a tracheostomy. Which of the following actions by the student would be incorrect?
- A. Pre-oxygenating the patient with a Resuscibag at 100% O2 several times before suctioning.
- B. Maintaining wall suction pressure at 110-150 mmHg.
- C. Not suctioning for greater than 10-15 seconds at a time.
- D. Applying gentle intermittent pressure and rotating the catheter during the insertion phase of suctioning.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The incorrect action by the student is applying gentle intermittent pressure and rotating the catheter during the insertion phase of suctioning. This technique can cause trauma to the tracheal walls, increasing the risk of injury to the patient. It is essential to perform suctioning gently and without rotation to prevent complications in patients with a tracheostomy. Pre-oxygenating the patient, maintaining appropriate suction pressure, and limiting suctioning time are all correct actions when suctioning a patient with a tracheostomy.
3. During the assessment, a client receiving a continuous infusion of heparin for deep vein thrombosis (DVT) is found to have a nosebleed. Which finding requires immediate action?
- A. The client's activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) is 70 seconds.
- B. The client has developed a nosebleed.
- C. The client's blood pressure is 150/90 mm Hg.
- D. The client reports feeling lightheaded.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: A nosebleed (B) in a client receiving heparin is a sign of heparin toxicity and requires immediate action. It indicates that the client is at risk of excessive bleeding. While a prolonged aPTT of 70 seconds (A) is worth monitoring, active bleeding takes precedence. Elevated blood pressure (C) and lightheadedness (D) are potential side effects of heparin but are not as urgently concerning as active bleeding.
4. A CVA (stroke) patient goes into respiratory distress and is placed on a ventilator. The client’s daughter arrives with a durable power of attorney and a living will that indicates there should be no extraordinary life-saving measures. What action should the nurse take?
- A. Refer to the risk manager
- B. Notify the healthcare provider
- C. Discontinue the ventilator
- D. Review the medical record
Correct answer: B
Rationale: In this situation, the nurse should notify the healthcare provider. The healthcare provider needs to be informed to review the legal documents provided by the patient's daughter, such as the durable power of attorney and living will, which specify the patient's wishes regarding life-saving measures. The healthcare provider will be responsible for making the appropriate decision based on the legal documents and the patient's current condition. Referring to the risk manager (choice A) is not necessary as the issue at hand pertains to the patient's medical care. Discontinuing the ventilator (choice C) without healthcare provider input could go against the patient's wishes and legal documents. Reviewing the medical record (choice D) may not provide immediate guidance on the current situation and the patient's preferences regarding life-saving measures.
5. How many drops per minute should a client weighing 182 pounds receive if a nurse mixes 50 mg of Nipride in 250 ml of D5W and plans to administer the solution at a rate of 5 mcg/kg/min? The drip factor is 60 gtt/ml.
- A. 31 gtt/min.
- B. 62 gtt/min.
- C. 93 gtt/min.
- D. 124 gtt/min.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: To determine the drops per minute for the client, first convert the client's weight from pounds to kilograms: 182/2.2 = 82.73 kg. Calculate the dosage by multiplying 5 mcg by the client's weight in kg: 5 mcg/kg/min × 82.73 kg = 413.65 mcg/min. Find the concentration of the solution in mcg/ml by dividing 250 ml by 50,000 mcg (50 mg): 250 ml/50,000 mcg = 200 mcg/ml. As the client needs 413.65 mcg/min and the solution is 200 mcg/ml, the client should receive 2.07 ml per minute. Finally, using the drip factor of 60 gtt/ml, multiply the ml per minute by the drip factor: 60 gtt/ml × 2.07 ml/min = 124.28 gtt/min, which rounds to 124 gtt/min. Therefore, the client should receive 124 drops per minute. Choice D is the correct answer. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because they do not reflect the accurate calculation based on the client's weight, dosage, concentration of the solution, and drip factor.
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