Nursing Elites

1. What action should be implemented to prevent the formation of a sacral ulcer for an immobile client?

• A. Maintain the client in a lateral position using protective wrist and vest restraints.
• B. Position the client prone with a small pillow below the diaphragm.
• C. Raise the head and knee gatch when lying in a supine position.
• D. Transfer the client to a wheelchair close to the nursing station for observation.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Positioning the client prone with a small pillow below the diaphragm helps maintain proper alignment and provides optimal pressure relief over the sacral area, reducing the risk of developing a pressure ulcer. This position redistributes pressure away from bony prominences, such as the sacrum, which is crucial in preventing ulcer formation in immobile clients. Choice A is incorrect because using restraints can lead to further complications and does not address pressure relief. Choice C is incorrect as raising the head and knee gatch in a supine position does not directly alleviate pressure over the sacrum. Choice D is incorrect as transferring to a wheelchair does not address pressure relief or optimal positioning to prevent sacral ulcers.

2. In completing a client's preoperative routine, the nurse finds that the operative permit is not signed. The client begins to ask more questions about the surgical procedure. Which action should the nurse take next?

• A. Witness the client's signature on the permit.
• B. Answer the client's questions about the surgery.
• C. Inform the surgeon that the operative permit is not signed and the client has questions about the surgery.
• D. Reassure the client that the surgeon will answer any questions before the anesthesia is administered.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The nurse should inform the surgeon promptly that the operative permit is not signed and the client has questions about the surgery. It is crucial for the surgeon to be aware of these issues as it is their responsibility to explain the procedure to the client and ensure that the necessary consent is obtained before proceeding with the surgery. Answering the client's questions directly (choice B) may not be appropriate as the surgeon is the one responsible for providing detailed information about the procedure. Witnessing the client's signature (choice A) is premature since the permit is not signed. Reassuring the client (choice D) is not the most appropriate action at this point; the priority is to involve the surgeon in addressing the unsigned permit and the client's questions.

3. UAP has lowered the head of the bed to change the linens for a client who is bedbound with a foley catheter and enteral tube feeds. Which change from the client warrants the most immediate intervention by the nurse?

• A. A feeding is infusing at 40 mL/hr through an enteral feeding tube
• B. The urine meter attached to the urinary drainage bag is completely full
• C. There is a large dependent loop in the client’s urinary drainage tubing
• D. Purulent drainage is present around the insertion site of the feeding tube

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Purulent drainage indicates infection at the insertion site, which requires immediate attention to prevent complications.

4. The healthcare provider is caring for a client who is experiencing fluid volume deficit (dehydration). Which intervention should the healthcare provider implement to assess the effectiveness of fluid replacement therapy?

• A. Monitor daily weights
• B. Assess skin turgor
• C. Evaluate blood pressure trends
• D. Check urine specific gravity

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Monitoring daily weights is an accurate method to assess the effectiveness of fluid replacement therapy because changes in weight reflect changes in fluid balance. Fluid volume deficit can be objectively evaluated by monitoring daily weights as it provides a more precise measurement of fluid status over time. Assessing skin turgor (choice B) is subjective and may not provide as accurate or measurable data as monitoring daily weights. Evaluating blood pressure trends (choice C) can give information about circulatory status but may not directly reflect fluid volume status. Checking urine specific gravity (choice D) can indicate the concentration of urine but does not provide a comprehensive assessment of overall fluid balance like monitoring daily weights does.

5. During the assessment, a client receiving a continuous infusion of heparin for deep vein thrombosis (DVT) is found to have a nosebleed. Which finding requires immediate action?

• A. The client's activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) is 70 seconds.
• B. The client has developed a nosebleed.
• C. The client's blood pressure is 150/90 mm Hg.
• D. The client reports feeling lightheaded.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: A nosebleed (B) in a client receiving heparin is a sign of heparin toxicity and requires immediate action. It indicates that the client is at risk of excessive bleeding. While a prolonged aPTT of 70 seconds (A) is worth monitoring, active bleeding takes precedence. Elevated blood pressure (C) and lightheadedness (D) are potential side effects of heparin but are not as urgently concerning as active bleeding.

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