HESI RN
HESI Medical Surgical Specialty Exam
1. A healthcare professional is monitoring the respiratory status of a client who has just undergone surgery and is wearing a pulse oximeter. Which of the following coexisting problems is cause for the healthcare professional to suspect that the oxygen saturation readings are not entirely accurate?
- A. Infection
- B. Hypertension
- C. Low blood pressure
- D. Loss of cough reflex
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Low blood pressure (hypotension), shock, and the use of peripheral vasoconstricting medications can lead to inaccurate pulse oximetry readings due to impaired peripheral perfusion. Hypertension and infection are not typically associated with inaccurate pulse oximetry readings, while the loss of cough reflex does not directly affect oxygen saturation readings.
2. A nurse teaches clients about the difference between urge incontinence and stress incontinence. Which statements should the nurse include in this education? (Select all that apply.)
- A. Urge incontinence involves a post-void residual volume less than 50 mL.
- B. Stress incontinence occurs due to weak pelvic floor muscles.
- C. Stress incontinence usually occurs in people with dementia.
- D. Urge incontinence can be managed by increasing fluid intake.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct statement to include in the education about urge incontinence and stress incontinence is choice B. Stress incontinence occurs due to weak pelvic floor muscles or urethral sphincter, leading to the inability to tighten the urethra sufficiently to overcome increased detrusor pressure. This condition is common after childbirth when pelvic muscles are stretched and weakened. Urge incontinence, on the other hand, is characterized by the inability to suppress the contraction signal from the detrusor muscle. It is often associated with abnormal detrusor contractions, which can be due to neurological abnormalities rather than post-void residual volume. Choice A is incorrect because urge incontinence is not defined by post-void residual volume. Choice C is incorrect as stress incontinence is not usually linked to dementia. Choice D is incorrect because increasing fluid intake is not a management strategy for urge incontinence.
3. Polyethylene glycol–electrolyte solution (GoLYTELY) is prescribed for a hospitalized client scheduled for a colonoscopy. The client begins to experience diarrhea after drinking the solution. Which action by the nurse is appropriate?
- A. Calling the physician
- B. Administering a cleansing enema
- C. Documenting the diarrhea in the medical record
- D. Giving intravenous replacement fluids in large amounts
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct action by the nurse in this situation is to document the diarrhea in the medical record. Polyethylene glycol–electrolyte solution (GoLYTELY) is a bowel evacuant used to cleanse the bowel before a colonoscopy. It is expected to cause mild diarrhea, which is a normal response to the medication. The diarrhea helps clear the bowel in preparation for the procedure. Calling the physician is not necessary unless there are complications. Administering a cleansing enema or giving intravenous replacement fluids in large amounts are not appropriate actions as they are not indicated for managing the expected diarrhea caused by GoLYTELY.
4. A client is starting urinary bladder training. Which statement should the nurse include in this client’s teaching?
- A. Use the toilet when you first feel the urge, rather than at specific intervals.
- B. Try to consciously hold your urine until the scheduled toileting time.
- C. Initially try to use the toilet at least every half hour for the first 24 hours.
- D. The toileting interval can be increased once you have been continent for a week.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: In urinary bladder training, the client should be taught to try to consciously hold their urine until the scheduled toileting time. This helps in training the bladder to hold urine for longer periods. Option A is incorrect because the goal is to consciously hold urine, not void immediately. Option C is incorrect as toileting at least every half hour may not promote bladder training. Option D is incorrect as increasing the toileting interval should be based on the client's comfort and progress, not just after being continent for a week.
5. A client is placed on a mechanical ventilator following a cerebral hemorrhage, and vecuronium bromide (Norcuron) 0.04 mg/kg q12 hours IV is prescribed. What is the priority nursing diagnosis for this client?
- A. Impaired communication related to paralysis of skeletal muscles.
- B. High risk for infection related to increased intracranial pressure.
- C. Potential for injury related to impaired lung expansion.
- D. Social isolation related to inability to communicate.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The priority nursing diagnosis for a client on a mechanical ventilator receiving vecuronium bromide is 'Impaired communication related to paralysis of skeletal muscles.' Vecuronium is a skeletal muscle relaxant that causes diaphragmatic paralysis, leading to the inability of the client to communicate effectively. This is a crucial nursing concern as it impacts the client's ability to express needs and participate in care. Option B 'High risk for infection related to increased intracranial pressure' is not the priority in this scenario as the client's condition is related to the effects of the medication and mechanical ventilation, not directly to increased intracranial pressure. Option C 'Potential for injury related to impaired lung expansion' is important but not the priority over impaired communication. Option D 'Social isolation related to inability to communicate' is not the priority nursing diagnosis in this situation as it focuses more on psychosocial aspects rather than the immediate physiological concern of communication impairment.
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