Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is reinforcing teaching with a client who has neutropenia as a result of radiation therapy for the treatment of lung cancer. Which of the following should the nurse plan to include in the teaching?

• A. Increase fluid intake by drinking bottled water.
• B. A salad bar is a healthy choice when dining out.
• C. Soft-boiled eggs are an appropriate source of protein.
• D. Eating at buffets is a good choice to increase caloric intake.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Clients with neutropenia should avoid foods that may be contaminated to prevent infections. Increasing fluid intake is important to stay hydrated, but it's crucial to use safe sources like bottled water to reduce the risk of infection. Choices B, C, and D are not appropriate for a client with neutropenia. Salad bars may contain raw or unwashed produce, soft-boiled eggs may carry a risk of contamination, and buffets may have food items that are not recommended for someone with neutropenia.

2. A nurse is collecting data from a client who has diabetes and is overweight. The client tells the nurse that she wants to start an exercise program. Which of the following actions should the nurse take first?

• A. Determine the client's usual pattern of activity.
• B. Assist the client in developing a healthy eating plan.
• C. Encourage the client to join a support group.
• D. Provide the client with a list of signs and symptoms to report to the provider.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Assessing the client's usual pattern of activity is crucial as it helps the nurse understand the client's current level of physical activity, any limitations, and areas needing improvement. This information is essential to create a safe and effective exercise plan tailored to the client's specific needs. Choice B, assisting the client in developing a healthy eating plan, is important but not the first step when the client's immediate goal is to start an exercise program. Encouraging the client to join a support group may be beneficial for motivation and emotional support but is not the priority at this stage. Providing a list of signs and symptoms to report to the provider is important for client education but is not the initial step when the client expresses a desire to begin an exercise program.

3. A nurse is providing care to a primigravida whose membranes spontaneously ruptured (ROM) 4 hours ago. Labor is to be induced. At the time of the ROM the vital signs were T-99.8 degrees F, P-84, R-20, BP-130/78, and fetal heart tones (FHT) 148 beats/min. Which assessment findings taken now may be an early indication that the client is developing a complication of labor?

• A. FHT 168 beats/min
• B. Temperature 100 degrees Fahrenheit
• C. Cervical dilation of 4 cm
• D. BP 138/88

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Fetal heart rate elevation can indicate distress, making it an early sign of labor complications. Choices B, C, and D are not the best answers in this scenario. Choice B, an elevated temperature, could indicate infection but is not a direct sign of labor complications. Choice C, cervical dilation of 4 cm, is a normal part of labor progression for a primigravida. Choice D, a blood pressure of 138/88, falls within normal limits and is not an early indication of labor complications.

4. When another nurse enters the room in response to a call, after checking the client's pulse and respirations during CPR on an adult in cardiopulmonary arrest, what should be the function of the second nurse?

• A. Relieve the nurse performing CPR
• B. Go get the code cart
• C. Participate with the compressions or breathing
• D. Validate the client's advanced directive

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is to participate in compressions or breathing. This is essential to ensure continuous and effective CPR. Relieving the nurse performing CPR (Choice A) is not recommended as it can interrupt the life-saving procedure. Going to get the code cart (Choice B) may be necessary in certain situations but should not take precedence over providing immediate assistance in CPR. Validating the client's advanced directive (Choice D) is not the primary role in this scenario where urgent action is needed to support the client's circulation and breathing.

5. During an assessment on a client in congestive heart failure, what is most likely to be revealed upon auscultation of the heart?

• A. S3 ventricular gallop
• B. Apical click
• C. Systolic murmur
• D. Split S2

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: S3 ventricular gallop. An S3 sound is a common finding in congestive heart failure due to fluid overload in the heart. It is associated with decreased ventricular compliance. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. An apical click is not typically associated with congestive heart failure. A systolic murmur may be heard in conditions like mitral regurgitation but is not specific to congestive heart failure. A split S2 is associated with conditions like pulmonary hypertension, not congestive heart failure.

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