an 86 year old nursing home resident who has decreased mental status is hospitalized with pneumonic infiltrates in the right lower lobe when the nurse
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Nursing Elites

HESI RN

Nutrition HESI Practice Exam

1. An 86-year-old nursing home resident who has decreased mental status is hospitalized with pneumonic infiltrates in the right lower lobe. When the nurse assists the client with a clear liquid diet, the client begins to cough. What should the nurse do next?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Checking the client's gag reflex is the appropriate action in this scenario. It helps assess the client's ability to swallow safely without the risk of aspiration. Adding a thickening agent to the fluids (Choice A) may be considered later if swallowing difficulties persist. Feeding the client only solid foods (Choice C) can increase the risk of aspiration in this case, and increasing the rate of intravenous fluids (Choice D) does not address the swallowing concern.

2. The client with infective endocarditis must be assessed frequently by the home health nurse. Which finding suggests that antibiotic therapy is not effective and must be reported by the nurse immediately to the healthcare provider?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: A high fever, such as 103 degrees Fahrenheit (39.5 degrees Celsius), in a client with infective endocarditis indicates that the infection may not be responding to the antibiotics and requires immediate medical evaluation. Nausea and vomiting, diffuse macular rash, and muscle tenderness are not typically associated with the ineffectiveness of antibiotic therapy in infective endocarditis.

3. A child is admitted to the pediatric unit with a diagnosis of suspected meningococcal meningitis. Which admission orders should the nurse do first?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is to place the child in respiratory/secretion precautions first. Meningococcal meningitis is highly contagious, and respiratory precautions are essential to prevent the spread of the infection. Seizure precautions may be necessary but are not the priority upon admission. Monitoring neurologic status is important but not the initial action needed. While antibiotic therapy like Cefotaxime is crucial, implementing isolation precautions to prevent transmission takes precedence in this situation.

4. During an assessment on a client in congestive heart failure, what is most likely to be revealed upon auscultation of the heart?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: S3 ventricular gallop. An S3 sound is a common finding in congestive heart failure due to fluid overload in the heart. It is associated with decreased ventricular compliance. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. An apical click is not typically associated with congestive heart failure. A systolic murmur may be heard in conditions like mitral regurgitation but is not specific to congestive heart failure. A split S2 is associated with conditions like pulmonary hypertension, not congestive heart failure.

5. The nurse is instructing a 65-year-old female client diagnosed with osteoporosis. The most important instruction regarding exercise would be to

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Exercise by doing weight-bearing activities. Weight-bearing activities help strengthen bones and prevent further bone loss in clients with osteoporosis. This type of exercise includes activities like walking, dancing, and weightlifting, which help improve bone density. Choice B is incorrect because the primary focus should be on bone health, not weight reduction. Choice C is incorrect as avoiding all exercise activities that increase the risk of fracture can lead to muscle weakness and a decline in bone health. Choice D is also incorrect because while strengthening muscles is beneficial, the emphasis for osteoporosis management should be on weight-bearing exercises specifically.

Similar Questions

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A client with gastroesophageal reflux is receiving teaching from a nurse. Which statement by the client indicates a need for further teaching?
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