Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is reinforcing nutrition teaching with a client who has osteoporosis. Which of the following food selections should the nurse recommend to increase calcium in the client's diet?

• A. 1 medium apple
• B. 3 oz of lean beef
• C. 1 tbsp of cream cheese
• D. 1 cup of kale

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: 1 cup of kale. Kale is rich in calcium, making it a suitable choice to increase calcium intake for individuals with osteoporosis. While fruits like apples (choice A) are nutritious, they are not high in calcium. Lean beef (choice B) is a good source of protein but not a significant source of calcium. Cream cheese (choice C) is also not a primary source of calcium compared to kale.

2. A client has received 2 units of whole blood today following an episode of GI bleeding. Which of the following laboratory reports would the nurse monitor most closely?

• A. Bleeding time
• B. Hemoglobin and hematocrit
• C. White blood cells
• D. Platelets

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Corrected Hemoglobin and hematocrit levels should be monitored closely after blood transfusions to assess the effectiveness and identify any complications. Monitoring hemoglobin and hematocrit levels helps evaluate the patient's oxygen-carrying capacity and blood volume. While platelets are crucial for clotting, they are not typically affected immediately after a blood transfusion. White blood cell count monitoring is more relevant in assessing infection or immune response, not directly related to a blood transfusion. Bleeding time measures platelet function, which is not the primary concern immediately after a blood transfusion.

3. A client with gastroesophageal reflux is receiving teaching from a nurse. Which statement by the client indicates a need for further teaching?

• A. I will avoid eating after supper.
• B. I can drink coffee throughout the day.
• C. I drink milk when I get heartburn.
• D. I should not eat foods made with chocolate.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Drinking coffee throughout the day can aggravate gastroesophageal reflux symptoms. Choices A, C, and D are correct statements that can help manage gastroesophageal reflux by avoiding late-night eating, not consuming trigger foods like chocolate, and using milk for relief when experiencing heartburn.

4. During a physical assessment on a client who just had an endotracheal tube inserted, which finding would call for immediate action by the nurse?

• A. Breath sounds are auscultated bilaterally
• B. Mist is visible in the T-Piece
• C. Pulse oximetry of 88%
• D. Client is unable to speak

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A pulse oximetry reading of 88% indicates hypoxemia, which requires immediate intervention to ensure adequate oxygenation. In this scenario, the priority is to address the low oxygen saturation to prevent further complications. Auscultation of bilateral breath sounds is a positive finding as it indicates air entry into both lungs. Mist in the T-piece is expected in clients with an endotracheal tube, and the inability to speak is common due to the tube's placement.

5. The client is preparing for a myelogram. Which of the following statements by the client indicates a contraindication for this test?

• A. I can't lie in one position for more than thirty minutes.
• B. I am allergic to shrimp.
• C. I suffer from claustrophobia.
• D. I developed a severe headache after a spinal tap.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: An allergy to shrimp is a contraindication for a myelogram because the contrast dye used in the procedure contains iodine, which can trigger allergic reactions in individuals allergic to shellfish. Choices A, C, and D are not contraindications for a myelogram. Inability to lie still for an extended period, claustrophobia, or a previous headache after a spinal tap are concerns that can be managed during the procedure but do not necessarily prevent the test from being performed.

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