HESI RN
HESI Medical Surgical Practice Exam Quizlet
1. The nurse assesses a client with advanced cirrhosis of the liver for signs of hepatic encephalopathy. Which finding would the nurse consider an indication of progressive hepatic encephalopathy?
- A. An increase in abdominal girth.
- B. Hypertension and a bounding pulse.
- C. Decreased bowel sounds.
- D. Difficulty in handwriting.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Difficulty in handwriting is a common early sign of hepatic encephalopathy. Changes in handwriting can indicate progression or reversal of hepatic encephalopathy leading to coma. Choice (A) is a sign of ascites, not hepatic encephalopathy. Hypertension and a bounding pulse (Choice B) are not typically associated with hepatic encephalopathy. Decreased bowel sounds (Choice C) do not directly indicate an increase in serum ammonia level, which is the primary cause of hepatic encephalopathy.
2. When planning care for a 10-year-old child with pneumonia receiving oxygen at 5l/min per nasal cannula, what principle of oxygen administration should the nurse consider?
- A. Avoid administration of oxygen at high levels for extended periods.
- B. Increase oxygen flow rate if the child is still tachypneic.
- C. Reduce oxygen levels gradually after symptoms improve.
- D. Humidify the oxygen to prevent drying of mucous membranes.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct principle of oxygen administration to consider is to avoid administering oxygen at high levels for extended periods. High levels of oxygen for prolonged periods can lead to oxygen toxicity, especially in pediatric patients. Increasing the oxygen flow rate based on tachypnea may not be necessary and can potentially lead to oxygen toxicity. Gradually reducing oxygen levels after symptoms improve may compromise the child's oxygenation. While humidifying oxygen is important to prevent drying of mucous membranes, the primary concern in this case is to avoid high oxygen levels for an extended duration to prevent oxygen toxicity.
3. A male client notifies the nurse that he feels short of breath and has chest pressure radiating down his left arm. A STAT 12-lead electrocardiogram (ECG) is obtained and shows ST segment elevation in leads II, III, aVF, and V4R. The nurse collects blood samples and gives a normal saline bolus. What action is most important for the nurse to implement?
- A. Obtain the results for STAT serum cardiac biomarkers.
- B. Assess for contraindications for thrombolytic therapy.
- C. Measure ST-segment height and waveform changes.
- D. Transfer for percutaneous coronary intervention (PCI).
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Assessing for contraindications for thrombolytic therapy is crucial as it determines whether the client is a candidate for reperfusion therapy. In this scenario, the client is presenting with symptoms and ECG changes consistent with an acute myocardial infarction (MI). Thrombolytic therapy aims at restoring blood flow to the heart muscle, reducing the size of the infarct. However, it is essential to assess for contraindications such as recent surgery, active bleeding, or a history of stroke to avoid potential complications. Obtaining serum cardiac biomarkers or measuring ST-segment changes are important steps in the diagnosis of MI but are not as time-sensitive as assessing for contraindications to thrombolytic therapy. Transfer for percutaneous coronary intervention (PCI) is a definitive treatment for MI, but assessing for thrombolytic therapy eligibility takes precedence in this acute situation.
4. The healthcare provider is preparing to administer atropine, an anticholinergic, to a client scheduled for a cholecystectomy. The client asks the provider to explain the reason for the prescribed medication. What response is best for the provider to provide?
- A. To increase gastric motility.
- B. To decrease the risk of bradycardia during surgery.
- C. To reduce secretions.
- D. To prevent nausea and vomiting.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Atropine, an anticholinergic medication, is used preoperatively to prevent bradycardia by increasing the automaticity of the sinoatrial node during surgical anesthesia. Choice A is incorrect because atropine does not affect gastric motility. Choice C is incorrect as atropine is not primarily used to reduce secretions. Choice D is also incorrect because preventing nausea and vomiting is not the primary purpose of administering atropine in this context.
5. In a patient with diabetes mellitus, which of the following is a sign of hypoglycemia?
- A. Polydipsia.
- B. Polyuria.
- C. Sweating.
- D. Dry skin.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Sweating is a common sign of hypoglycemia in diabetic patients. When blood sugar levels drop too low, the body releases stress hormones like adrenaline, which can cause sweating as a response to the perceived danger. Polydipsia (excessive thirst) and polyuria (excessive urination) are actually more commonly associated with hyperglycemia, not hypoglycemia. Dry skin is not typically a sign of hypoglycemia.