Nursing Elites

1. The nurse assesses a client with advanced cirrhosis of the liver for signs of hepatic encephalopathy. Which finding would the nurse consider an indication of progressive hepatic encephalopathy?

• A. An increase in abdominal girth.
• B. Hypertension and a bounding pulse.
• C. Decreased bowel sounds.
• D. Difficulty in handwriting.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Difficulty in handwriting is a common early sign of hepatic encephalopathy. Changes in handwriting can indicate progression or reversal of hepatic encephalopathy leading to coma. Choice (A) is a sign of ascites, not hepatic encephalopathy. Hypertension and a bounding pulse (Choice B) are not typically associated with hepatic encephalopathy. Decreased bowel sounds (Choice C) do not directly indicate an increase in serum ammonia level, which is the primary cause of hepatic encephalopathy.

2. A nurse cares for a client with diabetes mellitus who is prescribed metformin (Glucophage) and is scheduled for an intravenous urography. Which action should the nurse take first?

• A. Contact the provider and recommend discontinuing the metformin.
• B. Keep the client NPO for at least 6 hours prior to the examination.
• C. Check the client’s capillary artery blood glucose and administer prescribed insulin.
• D. Administer intravenous fluids to dilute and increase the excretion of dye.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Metformin can cause lactic acidosis and renal impairment as the result of an interaction with the dye. This drug must be discontinued for 48 hours before the procedure and not started again after the procedure until urine output is well established. The client’s health care provider needs to provide alternative therapy for the client until the metformin can be resumed. Keeping the client NPO, checking the client’s blood glucose, and administering intravenous fluids should be part of the client’s plan of care, but are not the priority, as the examination should not occur while the client is still taking metformin.

3. When a patient is receiving high doses of a cephalosporin, which laboratory values will this patient's nurse monitor closely?

• A. Blood urea nitrogen (BUN), serum creatinine, and liver function tests
• B. Complete blood count and electrolytes
• C. Serum calcium and magnesium
• D. Serum glucose and lipids

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When a patient is receiving high doses of a cephalosporin, such as cefazolin, the nurse should closely monitor laboratory values that indicate renal and hepatic function. This includes checking the Blood Urea Nitrogen (BUN) and serum creatinine levels to assess kidney function. Additionally, monitoring liver function tests, such as AST, ALT, ALP, LDH, and bilirubin, is essential as cephalosporins can affect liver enzymes. Therefore, options B, C, and D are incorrect as they do not specifically address the parameters that are most pertinent when administering high doses of cephalosporins.

4. A client admitted with left-sided heart failure has a heart rate of 110 beats per minute and is becoming increasingly dyspneic. Which additional assessment finding by the nurse supports the client's admitting diagnosis?

• A. An enlarged, distended abdomen.
• B. Crackles in the bases of both lungs.
• C. Jugular vein distension.
• D. Peripheral edema.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Crackles in the bases of the lungs are indicative of fluid accumulation, which is common in left-sided heart failure. In left-sided heart failure, the heart is unable to effectively pump blood from the lungs to the rest of the body, leading to a backup of fluid in the lungs. This results in crackles heard on auscultation. Choices A, C, and D are not specific to left-sided heart failure. An enlarged, distended abdomen may indicate ascites or liver congestion. Jugular vein distension is more commonly associated with right-sided heart failure, and peripheral edema is a sign of fluid accumulation in the tissues, which can occur in both types of heart failure but is not as specific to left-sided heart failure as crackles in the lungs.

5. The client had a thyroidectomy 24 hours ago and reports experiencing numbness and tingling of the face. Which intervention should the nurse implement?

• A. Open and prepare the tracheostomy kit.
• B. Inspect the neck for an increase in swelling.
• C. Monitor for the presence of Chvostek's sign.
• D. Assess lung sounds for laryngeal stridor.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Monitor for the presence of Chvostek's sign. Chvostek's sign is a clinical indicator of hypocalcemia, a common complication after thyroidectomy. Numbness and tingling around the face are associated with hypocalcemia due to potential damage to the parathyroid glands during surgery, leading to decreased calcium levels. Inspecting the neck for swelling (choice B) is important but does not directly address the presenting symptoms. Opening and preparing the tracheostomy kit (choice A) is not necessary based on the client's current symptoms. Assessing lung sounds for laryngeal stridor (choice D) is not directly related to the client's reported numbness and tingling of the face.

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