HESI RN
HESI 799 RN Exit Exam Quizlet
1. The nurse and an unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) are providing care for a client with a nasogastric tube (NGT) when the client begins to vomit. How should the nurse manage this situation?
- A. Direct the UAP to measure the emesis while the nurse irrigates the NGT
- B. Stop the NGT feed and notify the healthcare provider
- C. Increase the NGT suction pressure
- D. Elevate the head of the bed
Correct answer: A
Rationale: During vomiting in a client with an NGT, it is essential for the nurse to direct the UAP to measure the emesis to monitor the output. This helps in assessing the client's condition and response to treatment. Meanwhile, irrigating the NGT can be beneficial to relieve any obstruction that might be contributing to the vomiting. Stopping the NGT feed and notifying the healthcare provider (choice B) is important but not the immediate action needed. Increasing the NGT suction pressure (choice C) is unnecessary and can lead to complications. Elevating the head of the bed (choice D) is a general intervention to prevent aspiration but may not address the immediate issue of managing the vomiting episode and potential tube obstruction.
2. During nasotracheal suctioning, which of the following observations should be cause for concern to the nurse? Select all that apply.
- A. The client becomes cyanotic.
- B. Secretions are bloody.
- C. The client gags during the procedure.
- D. Clear to opaque secretions are removed.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: During nasotracheal suctioning, the client gagging during the procedure is a cause for concern as it can indicate discomfort or potential airway obstruction. Cyanosis, bloody secretions, or the removal of clear to opaque secretions are expected observations that the nurse should monitor for, but gagging indicates a need for immediate intervention to ensure the safety and comfort of the client. Cyanosis and bloody secretions can signify oxygenation issues and potential complications, while the removal of secretions is the goal of the suctioning procedure.
3. A client with hyperthyroidism is prescribed propranolol. The nurse understands that this medication is used to:
- A. Increase metabolism
- B. Reduce anxiety
- C. Decrease heart rate
- D. Increase blood pressure
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Propranolol is a beta-blocker commonly used in the management of hyperthyroidism. It works by blocking the effects of adrenaline, resulting in a decrease in heart rate and blood pressure. Choice A is incorrect because propranolol does not increase metabolism; instead, it may have a mild inhibitory effect. Choice B is incorrect as propranolol is not primarily used to reduce anxiety, although it may have some anxiolytic effects. Choice D is incorrect as propranolol actually decreases blood pressure by blocking the effects of adrenaline on the heart and blood vessels.
4. A 13-year-old client with type 1 diabetes presents to the clinic with a blood glucose level of 400 mg/dL. The client reports feeling thirsty and having frequent urination. What is the nurse’s priority action?
- A. Administer insulin as prescribed
- B. Encourage the client to drink water
- C. Check the client’s urine for ketones
- D. Reinforce the importance of diet and exercise
Correct answer: A
Rationale: In a client with type 1 diabetes presenting with hyperglycemia (blood glucose level of 400 mg/dL) and symptoms of thirst and frequent urination, the priority action for the nurse is to administer insulin as prescribed. Insulin helps lower the blood glucose level and prevents complications like diabetic ketoacidosis. While encouraging hydration is essential, administering insulin is crucial to address the high blood glucose levels. Checking urine for ketones is important in diabetic management but is secondary to administering insulin in this scenario. Reinforcing diet and exercise importance is vital for diabetes management but not the priority in acute hyperglycemia.
5. A patient has a serum potassium level of 2.7 mEq/L. The patient’s provider has determined that the patient will need 200 mEq of potassium to replace serum losses. How will the nurse caring for this patient expect to administer the potassium?
- A. As a single-dose 200 mEq oral tablet
- B. As an intravenous bolus over 15 to 20 minutes
- C. In an intravenous solution at a rate of 10 mEq/hour
- D. In an intravenous solution at a rate of 45 mEq/hour
Correct answer: C
Rationale: For a patient with severe hypokalemia with a serum potassium level of 2.7 mEq/L requiring 200 mEq of potassium replacement, the appropriate route of administration would be intravenous. Potassium chloride should be administered slowly to prevent adverse effects; therefore, the correct option is to administer the potassium in an intravenous solution at a rate of 10 mEq/hour. Choices A and B are incorrect because potassium should not be given as a single-dose oral tablet or as an intravenous bolus over a short period of time due to the risk of adverse effects. Choice D is also incorrect as the rate of 45 mEq/hour exceeds the recommended maximum infusion rate for adults with a serum potassium level greater than 2.5 mEq/L, which is 10 mEq/hour.