HESI RN TEST BANK

RN HESI Exit Exam

A client with a history of type 1 diabetes is admitted with diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA). Which intervention is most important?

    A. Administer intravenous fluids as prescribed.

    B. Administer insulin as prescribed.

    C. Monitor the client's urine output.

    D. Check the client's blood glucose level.

Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Administering insulin is the most important intervention in managing diabetic ketoacidosis. Insulin helps to reduce blood glucose levels and correct metabolic acidosis, which are critical in the treatment of DKA. While administering intravenous fluids is essential to manage dehydration, insulin takes precedence in treating the underlying cause of DKA. Monitoring urine output is important for assessing renal function but is not the primary intervention in managing DKA. Checking the client's blood glucose level is necessary, but administering insulin to reduce high blood glucose levels is the key priority in treating DKA.

In caring for a client with a PCA infusion of morphine sulfate through the right cephalic vein, the nurse assesses that the client is lethargic with a blood pressure of 90/60 mm Hg, a pulse rate of 118 beats per minute, and a respiratory rate of 8 breaths per minute. What assessment should the nurse perform next?

  • A. Note the appearance and patency of the client's peripheral IV site.
  • B. Palpate the volume of the client's right radial pulse.
  • C. Auscultate the client's breath sounds bilaterally.
  • D. Observe the amount and dose of morphine in the PCA pump syringe.

Correct Answer: D
Rationale: In this scenario, the client is presenting with signs of potential opioid overdose, such as lethargy, hypotension, tachycardia, and bradypnea. The next assessment the nurse should perform is to observe the amount and dose of morphine in the PCA pump syringe. This evaluation is crucial in determining if the client is receiving an excessive amount of morphine, leading to the observed symptoms. Checking the PCA pump syringe will provide essential information to address the client's condition promptly and prevent further complications. Choices A, B, and C are not the priority in this situation as they do not directly address the potential cause of the client's symptoms related to morphine administration.

When a client with a history of atrial fibrillation is admitted with a new onset of confusion, which diagnostic test should the nurse anticipate preparing the client for first?

  • A. Electrocardiogram (ECG)
  • B. Chest X-ray
  • C. Arterial blood gases (ABGs)
  • D. Echocardiogram

Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is an Electrocardiogram (ECG). When a client with a history of atrial fibrillation presents with new-onset confusion, an ECG is crucial to assess for cardiac ischemia, which could be a potential cause of the confusion. A chest X-ray (Choice B) is not typically the first-line diagnostic test for evaluating confusion in a client with atrial fibrillation. Arterial blood gases (ABGs) (Choice C) are more useful in assessing oxygenation and acid-base balance rather than the cause of confusion in this scenario. While an echocardiogram (Choice D) provides valuable information about cardiac structure and function, it is usually not the initial diagnostic test needed in the evaluation of acute confusion in a client with atrial fibrillation.

A client with a tracheostomy has thick, tenacious secretions. Which intervention should the nurse include in the plan of care?

  • A. Encourage the client to drink plenty of fluids.
  • B. Perform deep suctioning every 2 to 4 hours.
  • C. Increase humidity in the client's room.
  • D. Administer a mucolytic agent.

Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Increasing humidity in the client's room can help liquefy thick secretions and facilitate easier airway clearance in a client with a tracheostomy. Encouraging the client to drink plenty of fluids can be beneficial for overall hydration but may not directly address thick secretions. Deep suctioning every 2 to 4 hours can be harmful and cause trauma to the airway lining. Administering a mucolytic agent should be done under the healthcare provider's order and may not be the initial intervention for thick secretions.

Which instruction is most important for a client who receives a new plan of care to treat osteoporosis?

  • A. Start a weight-bearing exercise plan.
  • B. Increase consumption of foods rich in calcium.
  • C. Arrange a bone density test every year.
  • D. Stay upright after taking the medication.

Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: 'Stay upright after taking the medication.' This instruction is crucial for clients receiving medications like bisphosphonates to prevent esophageal irritation or erosion. While weight-bearing exercises (choice A) are important for bone health, staying upright after medication intake takes precedence. Increasing calcium-rich foods (choice B) is beneficial but not the most important immediate instruction. Scheduling bone density tests (choice C) is necessary for monitoring osteoporosis but is not as critical as staying upright after medication.

Access More Features


HESI Basic
$69.99/ 30 days

  • 3000 Questions and Answers
  • 30 days access only

HESI Premium
$149.99/ 90 days

  • 3000 Questions and Answers
  • 90 days access only