Nursing Elites

1. A client with a tracheostomy has thick, tenacious secretions. Which intervention should the nurse include in the plan of care?

• A. Encourage the client to drink plenty of fluids.
• B. Perform deep suctioning every 2 to 4 hours.
• C. Increase humidity in the client's room.
• D. Administer a mucolytic agent.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Increasing humidity in the client's room can help liquefy thick secretions and facilitate easier airway clearance in a client with a tracheostomy. Encouraging the client to drink plenty of fluids can be beneficial for overall hydration but may not directly address thick secretions. Deep suctioning every 2 to 4 hours can be harmful and cause trauma to the airway lining. Administering a mucolytic agent should be done under the healthcare provider's order and may not be the initial intervention for thick secretions.

2. A client with a history of atrial fibrillation is receiving warfarin (Coumadin). Which assessment finding is most concerning?

• A. INR of 3.5
• B. Prothrombin time (PT) of 15 seconds
• C. Headache
• D. Blood pressure of 140/90 mmHg

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. A headache in a client with a history of atrial fibrillation receiving warfarin (Coumadin) is concerning as it may indicate bleeding, which requires immediate assessment and intervention. Headaches can be a symptom of increased intracranial pressure due to bleeding, especially in patients on anticoagulants. Options A and B are within acceptable ranges for a client on warfarin therapy, indicating that the medication is effectively managing the clotting times. Option D, a blood pressure of 140/90 mmHg, while elevated, is not directly related to the client's condition of atrial fibrillation and warfarin therapy.

3. The nurse enters a client's room to administer scheduled daily medications and observes the client leaning forward and using pursed lip breathing. Which action is most important for the nurse to implement first?

• A. Evaluate the oxygen saturation.
• B. Administer a bronchodilator.
• C. Assist the client to sit upright.
• D. Encourage slow, deep breathing.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In this scenario, the nurse should first evaluate the oxygen saturation. This action is crucial as it provides immediate information on the client's respiratory status. Assessing the oxygen saturation can help determine the adequacy of oxygenation and guide further interventions. Administering a bronchodilator (Choice B) may be necessary based on assessment findings, but it should not be the first action without knowing the oxygen saturation level. While assisting the client to sit upright (Choice C) is generally beneficial for respiratory function, in this case, assessing oxygen saturation takes precedence. Encouraging slow, deep breathing (Choice D) can be helpful, but it is secondary to evaluating the oxygen saturation in this situation.

4. The parents of a 6-year-old recently diagnosed with asthma should be taught that symptoms of an acute episode of asthma are due to which physiological response?

• A. Inflammation of the mucous membrane and bronchospasm
• B. Increased mucus production and airway obstruction
• C. Hyperinflation of the lungs and alveolar collapse
• D. Bronchoconstriction and airway inflammation

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Bronchoconstriction and airway inflammation. During an acute asthma episode, bronchoconstriction and airway inflammation occur, leading to difficulty breathing. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect. Inflammation of the mucous membrane and bronchospasm (Choice A) are part of the pathophysiology of asthma but do not fully explain the symptoms during an acute episode. Increased mucus production and airway obstruction (Choice B) are also seen in asthma but are not the primary cause of acute symptoms. Hyperinflation of the lungs and alveolar collapse (Choice C) are not typical features of an acute asthma episode.

5. The nurse is assessing a client with chronic kidney disease (CKD) who is receiving erythropoietin therapy. Which assessment finding is most concerning?

• A. Increased fatigue
• B. Elevated blood pressure
• C. Low urine output
• D. Elevated hemoglobin

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In a client with chronic kidney disease (CKD) receiving erythropoietin therapy, an elevated blood pressure is the most concerning assessment finding. Elevated blood pressure can indicate worsening hypertension, which requires immediate intervention. Increased fatigue may be expected due to anemia associated with CKD and erythropoietin therapy. Low urine output may indicate impaired kidney function but is not as immediately concerning as elevated blood pressure. Elevated hemoglobin levels are the desired outcome of erythropoietin therapy, indicating an appropriate response to treatment.

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