Nursing Elites

1. The mental health nurse plans to discuss a client's depression with the health care provider in the emergency department. There are two clients sitting across from the emergency department desk. Which nursing action is best?

• A. Only refer to the client by gender.
• B. Identify the client only by age.
• C. Avoid using the client's name.
• D. Discuss the client another time.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The best nursing action is to discuss the client another time. When discussing a client's confidential information, it is essential to ensure privacy and confidentiality. Given the presence of other clients in the immediate vicinity, it is inappropriate to discuss personal details about a client's condition openly. Waiting for a more private setting is crucial to uphold the client's right to privacy and confidentiality. Choices A, B, and C are not appropriate because referring to the client only by gender, age, or avoiding the client's name does not address the issue of discussing confidential information in a public setting, which compromises the client's privacy and confidentiality.

2. While suctioning a client’s nasopharynx, the nurse observes that the client’s oxygen saturation remains at 94%, which is the same reading obtained prior to starting the procedure. What action should the nurse take in response to this finding?

• A. Complete the intermittent suction of the nasopharynx.
• B. Reposition the pulse oximeter clip to obtain a new reading.
• C. Stop suctioning until the pulse oximeter reading is above 95%.
• D. Apply an oxygen mask over the client’s nose and mouth.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A stable oxygen saturation reading of 94% indicates that the nurse can continue with the suctioning procedure. It is within an acceptable range, and there is no immediate need to interrupt the procedure. Continuing with the suctioning will help maintain airway patency and promote adequate oxygenation. Choice B is incorrect because repositioning the pulse oximeter clip is unnecessary when the reading is stable. Choice C is incorrect as there is no evidence to support stopping the suctioning procedure solely based on the oxygen saturation reading of 94%. Choice D is not the best action at this point, as applying an oxygen mask is not indicated when the oxygen saturation is stable and within an acceptable range.

3. The healthcare professional is assessing a client with a diagnosis of peripheral arterial disease (PAD). Which assessment finding is most indicative of this condition?

• A. Dependent rubor.
• B. Absence of hair on the lower legs.
• C. Shiny, thin skin on the legs.
• D. Pain in the legs when walking.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Pain in the legs when walking (D), known as intermittent claudication, is most indicative of peripheral arterial disease (PAD). While dependent rubor (A), absence of hair (B), and shiny, thin skin (C) are also associated with PAD, they are less specific than intermittent claudication. Intermittent claudication is a hallmark symptom of PAD caused by inadequate blood flow to the legs during exercise, resulting in pain that resolves with rest.

4. During a client assessment, the healthcare provider is evaluating cranial nerve function. Which assessment finding suggests that cranial nerve II is intact?

• A. The client can hear a whisper from 1 to 2 feet away.
• B. The client can identify an object by touch.
• C. The client can shrug the shoulders against resistance.
• D. The client can read a Snellen chart from 20 feet away.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The ability to read a Snellen chart from 20 feet away indicates intact cranial nerve II (optic nerve), responsible for vision. Hearing a whisper (A) is associated with cranial nerve VIII (vestibulocochlear nerve), identifying an object by touch (B) is related to cranial nerves V (trigeminal nerve) and VII (facial nerve), and shoulder shrugging against resistance (C) is a test for cranial nerve XI (accessory nerve). Thus, the correct answer is D as it specifically tests the function of cranial nerve II.

5. At a motor vehicle collision site, a nurse applies pressure to a groin wound that is bleeding profusely until emergency personnel arrive. Subsequently, the client undergoes leg amputation and sues the nurse for malpractice. What is the most likely outcome of this lawsuit?

• A. The Patient's Bill of Rights protects clients from malicious intents, so the nurse could lose the case.
• B. The lawsuit may be settled out of court, but the nurse's license is unlikely to be revoked.
• C. There will be no judgment against the nurse, as their actions were protected under the Good Samaritan Act.
• D. The client will win because the four elements of negligence (duty, breach, causation, and damages) cannot be proved.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The Good Samaritan Act shields healthcare professionals who act in good faith and offer reasonable care from malpractice claims, irrespective of the client's outcome. In this scenario, the nurse stopping to render aid at the accident scene and applying pressure to the bleeding groin wound would likely be covered by the Good Samaritan Act, protecting the nurse from legal repercussions related to the subsequent leg amputation.

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