Nursing Elites

1. The mental health nurse plans to discuss a client's depression with the health care provider in the emergency department. There are two clients sitting across from the emergency department desk. Which nursing action is best?

• A. Only refer to the client by gender.
• B. Identify the client only by age.
• C. Avoid using the client's name.
• D. Discuss the client another time.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The best nursing action is to discuss the client another time. When discussing a client's confidential information, it is essential to ensure privacy and confidentiality. Given the presence of other clients in the immediate vicinity, it is inappropriate to discuss personal details about a client's condition openly. Waiting for a more private setting is crucial to uphold the client's right to privacy and confidentiality. Choices A, B, and C are not appropriate because referring to the client only by gender, age, or avoiding the client's name does not address the issue of discussing confidential information in a public setting, which compromises the client's privacy and confidentiality.

2. The client is weak from inactivity due to a 2-week hospitalization. In planning care for the client, which range of motion (ROM) exercises should the nurse include?

• A. Passive ROM exercises to all joints on all extremities four times a day.
• B. Active ROM exercises to both arms and legs two or three times a day.
• C. Active ROM exercises with weights twice a day, 20 repetitions each.
• D. Passive ROM exercises to the point of resistance and slightly beyond.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Active ROM exercises are preferred over passive ROM to restore strength. Performing them on both arms and legs two or three times a day is effective in promoting muscle strength and mobility without the need for external assistance. Choice A is incorrect as passive ROM exercises may not help in restoring strength. Choice C is not recommended as using weights may be too strenuous for a weak client. Choice D is incorrect as passive ROM exercises to the point of resistance and slightly beyond may cause discomfort or injury to the weak client.

3. What action should be taken when adding sterile liquids to a sterile field?

• A. Use an expired sterile liquid if the bottle is sealed and unopened.
• B. Consider the sterile field contaminated if it becomes wet during the procedure.
• C. Remove the container cap and place it with the inside facing up on the sterile field.
• D. Hold the container low and pour the solution into a receptacle at the front of the sterile field.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: If a sterile field becomes wet or damp during a procedure, it is considered contaminated as moisture can allow organisms to wick from the surface and compromise the sterility of the field. It is essential to maintain the integrity of the sterile field to prevent infections and ensure patient safety.

4. A client is to receive cimetidine (Tagamet) 300 mg q6h IVP. The preparation arrives from the pharmacy diluted in 50 ml of 0.9% NaCl. The nurse plans to administer the IVPB dose over 20 minutes. For how many ml/hr should the infusion pump be set to deliver the secondary infusion?

• A. 75 ml/hr
• B. 150 ml/hr
• C. 225 ml/hr
• D. 300 ml/hr

Correct answer: B

Rationale: To calculate the infusion rate, set up a ratio proportion problem: 50 ml/20 min = x ml/60 min. Cross multiply to solve: 50 × 60 / 20 = 150 ml/hr. Therefore, the infusion pump should be set to deliver the secondary infusion at a rate of 150 ml/hr. Option A, 75 ml/hr, is incorrect because it does not account for the correct calculation. Option C, 225 ml/hr, is incorrect as it is too high a rate based on the calculation. Option D, 300 ml/hr, is also incorrect as it does not align with the correct calculation for the infusion rate.

5. During the assessment, a client receiving a continuous infusion of heparin for deep vein thrombosis (DVT) is found to have a nosebleed. Which finding requires immediate action?

• A. The client's activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) is 70 seconds.
• B. The client has developed a nosebleed.
• C. The client's blood pressure is 150/90 mm Hg.
• D. The client reports feeling lightheaded.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: A nosebleed (B) in a client receiving heparin is a sign of heparin toxicity and requires immediate action. It indicates that the client is at risk of excessive bleeding. While a prolonged aPTT of 70 seconds (A) is worth monitoring, active bleeding takes precedence. Elevated blood pressure (C) and lightheadedness (D) are potential side effects of heparin but are not as urgently concerning as active bleeding.

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