HESI RN
HESI Fundamentals Practice Exam
1. The healthcare provider is assessing a client with a diagnosis of pneumonia. Which assessment finding is most concerning?
- A. Coarse crackles in the lungs.
- B. Fever of 101.2°F (38.4°C).
- C. Productive cough with yellow sputum.
- D. Respiratory rate of 28 breaths per minute.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: A respiratory rate of 28 breaths per minute (D) is most concerning because it indicates respiratory distress and requires immediate intervention. While coarse crackles (A), fever (B), and productive cough (C) are common findings in pneumonia, a high respiratory rate signifies a more severe condition that needs prompt attention to prevent respiratory failure. Monitoring the respiratory rate is crucial in assessing the severity of respiratory distress in pneumonia, as it can rapidly progress to respiratory failure if not managed promptly.
2. A female UAP is assigned to take the vital signs of a client with pertussis for whom droplet precautions have been implemented. The UAP requests a change in assignment because she has not yet been fitted for a particulate filter mask. Which action should the nurse take?
- A. Advise the UAP to wear a standard face mask to take vital signs and then get fitted for a filter mask before providing personal care.
- B. Send the UAP to be fitted for a particulate filter mask immediately so she can provide care to this client.
- C. Instruct the UAP that a standard mask is sufficient for the provision of care for the assigned client.
- D. Before changing assignments, determine which staff members have fitted particulate filter masks.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. For droplet precautions, such as in the case of pertussis, a standard face mask is sufficient for protection. Particulate filter masks are required for airborne precautions, not for droplet precautions. Therefore, the UAP can proceed with taking the vital signs using a standard mask without the need for a particulate filter mask. Choice A is incorrect because the UAP does not need to get fitted for a particulate filter mask before providing care in this situation. Choice B is incorrect as fitting for a particulate filter mask is not necessary for droplet precautions. Choice D is also incorrect because determining which staff members have fitted particulate filter masks is not relevant to the UAP's situation with the client on droplet precautions. It is important for healthcare workers to understand the appropriate use of personal protective equipment based on the type of precautions in place to provide safe and effective care to clients.
3. A community hospital is opening a mental health services department. Which document should the nurse use to develop the unit's nursing guidelines?
- A. Americans with Disabilities Act of 1990
- B. ANA Code of Ethics with Interpretative Statements
- C. ANA's Scope and Standards of Nursing Practice
- D. Patient's Bill of Rights of 1990
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The ANA's Scope and Standards of Nursing Practice are essential guidelines for nursing practice in various specialties, including mental health. The document outlines the expectations and responsibilities of nurses in providing high-quality care within their specific practice areas. In the context of opening a mental health services department, using the Scope and Standards specific to psychiatric–mental health nursing would ensure that the unit's nursing guidelines align with best practices and professional standards in mental health care. Choices A, B, and D are not focused on providing specific guidelines for nursing practice in a mental health services department, making them incorrect options.
4. A client with a suspected kidney infection is admitted to the hospital for observation. Which action should the nurse implement to assess the client’s kidney function?
- A. Monitor the client’s urine output
- B. Check for abdominal tenderness
- C. Evaluate the client’s fluid intake
- D. Inspect the client’s skin for edema
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Monitoring urine output is the most direct way to assess kidney function as it provides crucial information about the kidneys’ ability to filter waste and produce urine. Changes in urine output can indicate potential issues with kidney function, such as decreased filtration or impaired excretion of waste products.
5. The healthcare provider plans to administer diazepam, 4 mg IV push, to a client with severe anxiety. How many milliliters should the healthcare provider administer? (Round to the nearest tenth.)
- A. 0.2 mL
- B. 0.8 mL
- C. 1.25 mL
- D. 2.0 mL
Correct answer: B
Rationale: To calculate the volume to administer, use the formula (1 mL × 4 mg) / 5 mg = 0.8 mL. The healthcare provider should administer 0.8 mL of diazepam for a dosage of 4 mg IV push. Choice A is incorrect because it results from an incorrect calculation. Choices C and D are incorrect as they do not align with the correct calculation based on the provided dosage.
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