the nurse is assessing a client with a diagnosis of pneumoniwhich assessment finding is most concerning
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Nursing Elites

HESI RN

HESI Fundamentals Practice Exam

1. The healthcare provider is assessing a client with a diagnosis of pneumonia. Which assessment finding is most concerning?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: A respiratory rate of 28 breaths per minute (D) is most concerning because it indicates respiratory distress and requires immediate intervention. While coarse crackles (A), fever (B), and productive cough (C) are common findings in pneumonia, a high respiratory rate signifies a more severe condition that needs prompt attention to prevent respiratory failure. Monitoring the respiratory rate is crucial in assessing the severity of respiratory distress in pneumonia, as it can rapidly progress to respiratory failure if not managed promptly.

2. An unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) places a client in a left lateral position prior to administering a soap suds enema. Which instruction should the nurse provide the UAP?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct position for administering a soap suds enema is the Sims' position, not the left lateral position. The Sims' position allows the enema solution to follow the anatomical course of the intestines and provides the best overall results. By repositioning the client in the Sims' position, the weight is distributed to the anterior ilium, facilitating the enema administration process.

3. A client is to receive 10 mEq of KCl diluted in 250 ml of normal saline over 4 hours. At what rate should the nurse set the client's intravenous infusion pump?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct calculation involves dividing the total volume by the total time. In this case, 250 ml/4 hours = 63 ml/hour. The dose of KCl is not used in the calculation as the focus is on the rate of infusion over the specified time period. Choice A (13 ml/hour) is incorrect as it does not result from the correct calculation. Choice C (80 ml/hour) and Choice D (125 ml/hour) are also incorrect calculations and do not match the correct rate of infusion required.

4. Why is it most important to start intravenous infusions in the upper extremities rather than the lower extremities of adults?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The most critical reason for initiating intravenous infusions in the upper extremities of adults is to reduce the risk of thrombosis (B). Venous return is typically better in the upper extremities, decreasing the likelihood of thrombus formation, which could be life-threatening if dislodged. Although superficial veins are easily found in the feet and ankles (A), this is not the primary reason for choosing the upper extremities. Handling a leg or foot with an IV (C) is not significantly more challenging than handling an arm or hand. The depth of veins in the feet and ankles (D) does not primarily determine the site for IV placement.

5. The healthcare professional is preparing to administer 10 mL of liquid potassium chloride through a feeding tube, followed by 10 mL of liquid acetaminophen. Which action should the healthcare professional include in this procedure?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: To maintain patency and ensure proper medication delivery, water should be instilled into the feeding tube between administering the two medications. This helps prevent clogging of the tube and ensures that both medications are delivered effectively without interference from remnants of the previous medication. Diluting the medications with sterile water before administration (choice A) is unnecessary and may alter the medication concentration. Mixing the medications in one syringe (choice B) could lead to interactions or chemical reactions between the medications. Withdrawing fluid from the tube before instilling each medication (choice D) is not required and may increase the risk of tube displacement or misplacement.

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