Nursing Elites

1. The healthcare provider is assessing a client with a diagnosis of pneumonia. Which assessment finding is most concerning?

• A. Coarse crackles in the lungs.
• B. Fever of 101.2°F (38.4°C).
• C. Productive cough with yellow sputum.
• D. Respiratory rate of 28 breaths per minute.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: A respiratory rate of 28 breaths per minute (D) is most concerning because it indicates respiratory distress and requires immediate intervention. While coarse crackles (A), fever (B), and productive cough (C) are common findings in pneumonia, a high respiratory rate signifies a more severe condition that needs prompt attention to prevent respiratory failure. Monitoring the respiratory rate is crucial in assessing the severity of respiratory distress in pneumonia, as it can rapidly progress to respiratory failure if not managed promptly.

2. During the insertion of a nasogastric tube (NGT), the client begins to cough and gag. What action should the healthcare professional take?

• A. Stop advancing the tube and allow the client to rest
• B. Remove the tube and try again after a few minutes
• C. Continue inserting the tube while the client sips water
• D. Withdraw the tube slightly and pause before continuing

Correct answer: D

Rationale: When a client begins to cough and gag during the insertion of a nasogastric tube, withdrawing the tube slightly and pausing is the appropriate action. This technique helps prevent further irritation, gives the client a moment to recover, and allows for a smoother continuation of the insertion process. Choice A is incorrect because allowing the client to rest without adjusting the tube position might not address the issue. Choice B is incorrect as removing the tube without addressing the cause of coughing and gagging may lead to repeated discomfort. Choice C is incorrect as continuing to insert the tube while the client is experiencing difficulties can increase discomfort and potential complications.

3. The client is weak from inactivity due to a 2-week hospitalization. In planning care for the client, which range of motion (ROM) exercises should the nurse include?

• A. Passive ROM exercises to all joints on all extremities four times a day.
• B. Active ROM exercises to both arms and legs two or three times a day.
• C. Active ROM exercises with weights twice a day, 20 repetitions each.
• D. Passive ROM exercises to the point of resistance and slightly beyond.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Active ROM exercises are preferred over passive ROM to restore strength. Performing them on both arms and legs two or three times a day is effective in promoting muscle strength and mobility without the need for external assistance. Choice A is incorrect as passive ROM exercises may not help in restoring strength. Choice C is not recommended as using weights may be too strenuous for a weak client. Choice D is incorrect as passive ROM exercises to the point of resistance and slightly beyond may cause discomfort or injury to the weak client.

4. A client with stage 4 lung cancer receiving in-home hospice care expresses concerns about pain while the nurse is arranging for discharge. What action should the nurse take?

• A. Explain the potential respiratory issues associated with morphine use.
• B. Educate the family on assessing the effectiveness of analgesics.
• C. Suggest requesting a patient-controlled analgesic (PCA) pump from the healthcare provider.
• D. Provide the client with a schedule for around-the-clock prescribed analgesic use.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In managing pain for a client with stage 4 lung cancer in hospice care, providing a schedule for around-the-clock prescribed analgesic use is essential. This approach ensures continuous pain control and helps prevent breakthrough pain. By having a consistent dosing schedule, the client can maintain a more stable level of pain relief, enhancing their comfort and quality of life during this critical time.

5. During a client assessment, the healthcare provider is evaluating cranial nerve function. Which assessment finding suggests that cranial nerve II is intact?

• A. The client can hear a whisper from 1 to 2 feet away.
• B. The client can identify an object by touch.
• C. The client can shrug the shoulders against resistance.
• D. The client can read a Snellen chart from 20 feet away.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The ability to read a Snellen chart from 20 feet away indicates intact cranial nerve II (optic nerve), responsible for vision. Hearing a whisper (A) is associated with cranial nerve VIII (vestibulocochlear nerve), identifying an object by touch (B) is related to cranial nerves V (trigeminal nerve) and VII (facial nerve), and shoulder shrugging against resistance (C) is a test for cranial nerve XI (accessory nerve). Thus, the correct answer is D as it specifically tests the function of cranial nerve II.

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