HESI RN
HESI Fundamentals Quizlet
1. A healthcare professional stops at a motor vehicle collision site to render aid until the emergency personnel arrive and applies pressure to a groin wound that is bleeding profusely. Later, the client has to have the leg amputated and sues the healthcare professional for malpractice. What is the most likely outcome of this lawsuit?
- A. The Patient's Bill of Rights protects clients from malicious intents, so the healthcare professional could lose the case.
- B. The lawsuit may be settled out of court, but the healthcare professional's license is likely to be revoked.
- C. There will be no judgment against the healthcare professional, whose actions were protected under the Good Samaritan Act.
- D. The client will win because the four elements of negligence (duty, breach, causation, and damages) can be proved.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The Good Samaritan Act protects healthcare professionals who provide care in good faith and offer reasonable assistance in emergencies. This law shields them from malpractice claims, even if the outcome for the client is unfavorable. In this scenario, the healthcare professional is likely to be protected from judgment under the Good Samaritan Act. Choice A is incorrect because the situation does not involve the Patient's Bill of Rights, but rather the Good Samaritan Act. Choice B is incorrect as the license revocation is not a typical outcome in Good Samaritan cases. Choice D is incorrect as the Good Samaritan Act provides immunity from liability in such emergency situations.
2. A client with hyperparathyroidism has a serum calcium level of 13 mg/dL. Which medication should be prepared to administer as prescribed to the client?
- A. Calcium chloride
- B. Calcium gluconate
- C. Calcitonin (Miacalcin)
- D. Large doses of vitamin D
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The normal serum calcium level ranges from 8.6 to 10.0 mg/dL. In hypercalcemia, as seen in this client, Calcitonin (Miacalcin) is used to decrease plasma calcium levels by inhibiting bone resorption. Calcium gluconate and calcium chloride are typically used for hypocalcemia, not hypercalcemia. Large doses of vitamin D should be avoided in hypercalcemia as they can exacerbate hypercalcemia by increasing calcium absorption from the intestines.
3. A community health nurse is developing a program to increase physical activity among adults in the community. Which intervention is most likely to be successful?
- A. distributing flyers about the benefits of exercise
- B. organizing free community exercise classes
- C. partnering with local gyms to offer discounts
- D. hosting a health fair with information booths
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Organizing free community exercise classes is the most likely successful intervention as it provides a structured and accessible opportunity for adults to engage in physical activity. This choice directly offers a practical solution by providing a regular and organized setting for individuals to participate in physical activity. Distributing flyers about the benefits of exercise, while informative, may not lead to actual participation. Partnering with local gyms to offer discounts relies on individuals taking the initiative to sign up for gym memberships, which may not be feasible for everyone. Hosting a health fair with information booths is informative but may not directly address the need for increased physical activity among adults in the community.
4. A client with acute pancreatitis is receiving nothing by mouth (NPO) status. What is the nurse's priority intervention?
- A. Administer antiemetic medication as prescribed.
- B. Monitor the client's intake and output.
- C. Provide mouth care to keep the client comfortable.
- D. Elevate the client's head of the bed.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Monitor the client's intake and output. When a client with acute pancreatitis is on NPO status, the nurse's priority intervention is to monitor the client's intake and output. This is crucial to assess for signs of dehydration, electrolyte imbalances, and to ensure the client is responding appropriately to treatment. Administering antiemetic medication (choice A) may be necessary for managing nausea and vomiting but is not the priority over monitoring intake and output. Providing mouth care (choice C) and elevating the client's head of the bed (choice D) are important aspects of care but do not take precedence over monitoring intake and output to prevent complications in clients with NPO status due to acute pancreatitis.
5. What is the primary purpose of administering anticoagulants to a patient with atrial fibrillation?
- A. To reduce blood pressure.
- B. To prevent clot formation.
- C. To prevent arrhythmias.
- D. To reduce inflammation.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The primary purpose of administering anticoagulants to a patient with atrial fibrillation is to prevent clot formation. Patients with atrial fibrillation are at an increased risk of forming blood clots in the heart, which can lead to stroke if they travel to the brain. Anticoagulants help to reduce this risk by inhibiting the clotting process. Therefore, choices A, C, and D are incorrect because anticoagulants do not primarily aim to reduce blood pressure, prevent arrhythmias, or reduce inflammation in patients with atrial fibrillation.