Nursing Elites

1. The LPN/LVN is preparing a client with a term pregnancy who is in active labor for an amniotomy. What equipment should the nurse have available at the client's bedside? (Select all that apply.)

• A. Litmus paper.
• B. Fetal scalp electrode.
• C. A sterile glove.
• D. An amniotic hook.

Correct answer: C,D

Rationale: For performing an amniotomy, the nurse should have a sterile glove to maintain asepsis and an amniotic hook to rupture the amniotic sac. Litmus paper is not required for this procedure, and a fetal scalp electrode is used for fetal monitoring, not for an amniotomy.

2. The nurse is caring for a postpartum client who is exhibiting symptoms of a spinal headache 24 hours following the delivery of a normal newborn. Prior to the anesthesiologist's arrival on the unit, which action should the nurse perform?

• A. Apply an abdominal binder.
• B. Cleanse the spinal injection site.
• C. Insert an indwelling Foley catheter.
• D. Place procedure equipment at the bedside.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In a postpartum client exhibiting symptoms of a spinal headache, applying an abdominal binder is a priority action. The abdominal binder can help reduce the severity of a spinal headache by increasing intra-abdominal pressure, which may relieve pressure on the dural sac and alleviate symptoms. This intervention can be performed promptly by the nurse to provide immediate relief while waiting for further evaluation and management by the anesthesiologist. Cleansing the spinal injection site (Choice B) is not the priority in this situation as the headache is likely due to a dural puncture during epidural anesthesia rather than infection. Inserting an indwelling Foley catheter (Choice C) and placing procedure equipment at the bedside (Choice D) are not the appropriate actions to address a spinal headache and should not take precedence over applying an abdominal binder.

3. During a well-child visit for their child, one of the parents with an autosomal dominant disorder tells the nurse, 'We don’t plan on having any more children, since the next child is likely to inherit this disorder.' How should the nurse respond?

• A. Explain that the risk of inheriting the disorder decreases by 50% with each child the couple has.
• B. Acknowledge that the next child will inherit the disorder since the first child did not.
• C. Encourage the couple to reconsider their decision since the inheritance pattern may be sex-linked.
• D. Confirm that there is a 50% chance of their future children inheriting the disorder.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Confirming that there is a 50% chance of their future children inheriting the disorder is the correct response in this situation. Autosomal dominant disorders have a 50% chance of being passed on to each child. Providing accurate genetic counseling is essential to help the parents make informed decisions about family planning. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect. Choice A is inaccurate because the risk of inheriting an autosomal dominant disorder remains at 50% for each child regardless of the number of children the couple has. Choice B is not appropriate as it does not provide helpful information or support to the parents. Choice C is misleading because autosomal dominant disorders follow a specific inheritance pattern and are not sex-linked.

4. The parents of a 3-year-old boy with Duchenne muscular dystrophy (DMD) ask, 'How can our son have this disease? We are wondering if we should have any more children.' What information should the nurse provide these parents?

• A. This is an inherited X-linked recessive disorder, which primarily affects male children in the family.
• B. The male infant had a viral infection that went unnoticed and untreated, leading to muscle damage.
• C. The lack of the protein dystrophin in the mother can impact the XXX muscle groups of males.
• D. Spinal cord damage due to birth trauma during a breech vaginal birth weakens the muscles.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Duchenne muscular dystrophy is an X-linked recessive disorder, meaning the gene mutation causing DMD is located on the X chromosome. Males have one X chromosome and one Y chromosome, so if the X chromosome they inherit from their mother carries the mutated gene, they will develop DMD. Females have two X chromosomes, so they are carriers of the gene but are usually not affected by the disease. Therefore, the nurse should explain to the parents that DMD is an inherited X-linked recessive disorder that primarily affects male children in the family.

5. When preparing a class on newborn care for expectant parents, what content should be taught concerning the newborn infant born at term gestation?

• A. Milia are white marks caused by sebaceous glands and typically resolve within 2 to 4 weeks.
• B. Meconium is the first stool and is typically dark green or black in color.
• C. Vernix caseosa is a white, cheesy substance mainly found in skin folds, providing a protective layer.
• D. Pseudostrabismus in newborns usually self-resolves without the need for intervention.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Vernix caseosa is a white, cheesy substance that acts as a protective barrier on the skin of newborns, particularly present in skin folds. It helps to prevent dehydration and protect the delicate skin of the newborn from the amniotic fluid in utero. Educating expectant parents about the presence and function of vernix caseosa can help them understand the importance of its preservation during the immediate postnatal period. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect as they do not directly relate to the protective function of vernix caseosa in newborns. Milia are small, white bumps on the skin due to blocked oil glands, meconium is the first stool of a newborn and is typically dark green or black in color, and pseudostrabismus refers to false appearance of misalignment of the eyes, which usually resolves on its own without intervention.

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