Nursing Elites

1. The LPN/LVN is preparing a client with a term pregnancy who is in active labor for an amniotomy. What equipment should the nurse have available at the client's bedside?

• A. Litmus paper.
• B. Fetal scalp electrode.
• C. A sterile glove.
• D. Needle and Thread

Correct answer: C

Rationale: For performing an amniotomy, the nurse should have a sterile glove to maintain asepsis and an amniotic hook to rupture the amniotic sac. Litmus paper is not required for this procedure, and a fetal scalp electrode is used for fetal monitoring, not for an amniotomy.

2. A pregnant woman comes to the prenatal clinic for an initial visit. In reviewing her childbearing history, the client indicates that she has delivered premature twins, one full-term baby, and has had no abortions. Which GTPAL should the LPN/LVN document in this client's record?

• A. 3-1-2-0-3.
• B. 4-1-2-0-3.
• C. 2-1-2-1-2.
• D. 3-1-1-0-3.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct GTPAL for this client is 3-1-1-0-3. G (Gravida) is 3, indicating a total of 3 pregnancies. T (Term) is 1, representing 1 full-term delivery. P (Preterm) is 1, not 2 as mentioned in the question, as twins count as one pregnancy event. A (Abortions) is 0, and L (Living) is 3, indicating 3 living children (twins count as 1). Therefore, the correct answer is 3-1-1-0-3.

3. The LPN/LVN identifies crepitus when examining the chest of a newborn who was delivered vaginally. Which further assessment should the nurse perform?

• A. Elicit a positive scarf sign on the affected side.
• B. Observe for an asymmetrical Moro (startle) reflex.
• C. Watch for swelling of fingers on the affected side.
• D. Note paralysis of the affected extremity and muscles.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Crepitus in a newborn's chest following vaginal delivery may indicate a clavicle fracture. Observing for an asymmetrical Moro reflex is essential because it can indicate potential nerve damage or fracture, which may be associated with the crepitus identified during the examination.

4. Immediately after birth, a newborn infant is suctioned, dried, and placed under a radiant warmer. The infant has spontaneous respirations, and the nurse assesses an apical heart rate of 80 beats/minute and respirations of 20 breaths/minute. What action should the nurse take next?

• A. Initiate positive pressure ventilation.
• B. Intervene after the one-minute Apgar assessment.
• C. Initiate CPR on the infant.
• D. Assess the infant's blood glucose level.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A heart rate below 100 bpm in a newborn indicates bradycardia and requires intervention. Positive pressure ventilation should be initiated to improve oxygenation and help increase the infant's heart rate. This intervention is crucial to support the newborn's transition to extrauterine life and prevent further complications.

5. A one-day-old neonate develops a cephalohematoma. The nurse should closely assess this neonate for which common complication?

• A. Jaundice.
• B. Poor feeding.
• C. Brain injury.
• D. Hypoglycemia.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A cephalohematoma is a collection of blood between the skull and the periosteum. As the blood breaks down, there is an increased risk of jaundice due to the release of bilirubin from the breakdown of red blood cells. Jaundice is a common complication associated with cephalohematoma in neonates. Therefore, the nurse should closely monitor the neonate for signs of jaundice and manage it accordingly.

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