the lpnlvn is counseling a woman who wants to become pregnant the woman tells the nurse that she has a 36 day menstrual cycle and the first day of her
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Nursing Elites

HESI RN

Maternity HESI Quizlet

1. The LPN/LVN is counseling a woman who wants to become pregnant. The woman tells the nurse that she has a 36-day menstrual cycle and the first day of her last menstrual period was January 8. The nurse calculates that the woman's next fertile period is

Correct answer: C

Rationale: To determine the fertile period, subtract 14 days from the length of the woman's menstrual cycle. In this case, 36-14 = 22. Counting forward from the first day of the last menstrual period (January 8), the fertile period falls around January 30-31. This is because ovulation typically occurs approximately 14 days before the start of the next menstrual period, marking the fertile window for conception.

2. A child with glomerulonephritis is asking for strawberries. What should the nurse do?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In glomerulonephritis, it is crucial to restrict the child's diet, particularly avoiding foods high in potassium like strawberries. Potassium restriction is essential because impaired kidney function in glomerulonephritis can lead to potassium retention, potentially causing hyperkalemia. Therefore, the nurse should restrict the child's diet to manage their condition effectively.

3. What is the most important assessment for the healthcare provider to conduct following the administration of epidural anesthesia to a client who is at 40-weeks gestation?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Following the administration of epidural anesthesia, the most crucial assessment for the healthcare provider to conduct is monitoring maternal blood pressure. Epidural anesthesia can lead to hypotension as a common side effect, which can have significant implications for both the mother and the fetus. Therefore, close monitoring of maternal blood pressure is essential to detect and manage any hypotensive episodes promptly. Choices B, C, and D are important assessments during labor and delivery, but in this specific scenario of post-epidural anesthesia, monitoring maternal blood pressure takes precedence due to the potential risk of hypotension.

4. The nurse is caring for a one-year-old child following surgical correction of hypospadias. Which nursing action has the highest priority?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In caring for a one-year-old child post hypospadias surgery, the highest priority action is to monitor urinary output. This is crucial to assess kidney function and ensure there are no complications following the surgical procedure. Auscultating bowel sounds, observing stool appearance, and recording diet consumption are important assessments too, but in this case, monitoring urinary output takes precedence due to the nature of the surgery and potential complications related to urinary function.

5. After a full-term vaginal delivery, a postpartum client's white blood cell count is 15,000/mm3. What action should the nurse take first?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In postpartum clients, a white blood cell count of 15,000/mm3 can be within normal limits due to physiological changes that occur after childbirth. Checking the differential count would provide a more detailed analysis of the specific types of white blood cells present, helping to differentiate between normal postpartum changes and potential infection. This action allows the nurse to gather more information before escalating the situation to the healthcare provider or initiating other assessments. Assessing vital signs and the perineal area are important aspects of postpartum care but may not be the priority in this scenario where the white blood cell count can be influenced by normal physiological changes.

Similar Questions

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