HESI RN
Maternity HESI Quizlet
1. The LPN/LVN is counseling a woman who wants to become pregnant. The woman tells the nurse that she has a 36-day menstrual cycle and the first day of her last menstrual period was January 8. The nurse calculates that the woman's next fertile period is
- A. January 14-15.
- B. January 22-23.
- C. January 30-31.
- D. February 6-7.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: To determine the fertile period, subtract 14 days from the length of the woman's menstrual cycle. In this case, 36-14 = 22. Counting forward from the first day of the last menstrual period (January 8), the fertile period falls around January 30-31. This is because ovulation typically occurs approximately 14 days before the start of the next menstrual period, marking the fertile window for conception.
2. At 40-weeks gestation, a client presents to the obstetrical floor indicating that the amniotic membranes ruptured spontaneously at home. She is in active labor and feels the need to bear down and push. Which information is most important for the nurse to obtain?
- A. Color and consistency of fluid.
- B. Estimated amount of fluid.
- C. Any odor noted when membranes ruptured.
- D. Time the membranes ruptured.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The color and consistency of the amniotic fluid are crucial to assess for the presence of meconium, which may indicate fetal distress. Meconium-stained amniotic fluid can suggest fetal compromise and the need for further evaluation and monitoring. The estimated amount of fluid is less critical than assessing for meconium. While noting any odor when the membranes ruptured may provide some information, it is not as crucial as assessing for meconium. The time the membranes ruptured is important for documenting the timeline but does not directly impact immediate patient care like assessing for fetal distress.
3. Which intervention is most helpful in relieving postpartum uterine contractions or 'afterpains'?
- A. Lying prone with a pillow on the abdomen.
- B. Using a breast pump.
- C. Massaging the abdomen.
- D. Giving oxytocic medications.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Lying prone with a pillow on the abdomen is the most helpful intervention in relieving postpartum uterine contractions or 'afterpains.' This position provides counter-pressure and support to the uterus, helping to alleviate discomfort and promote uterine involution. Choice B, using a breast pump, is not effective in relieving afterpains as it focuses on milk expression. Massaging the abdomen (Choice C) may help with discomfort but does not provide the same level of support as lying prone with a pillow. Giving oxytocic medications (Choice D) is not typically the first-line intervention for afterpains unless there are specific medical indications.
4. A client in active labor is admitted with preeclampsia. Which assessment finding is most significant in planning this client's care?
- A. Patellar reflex 4+
- B. Blood pressure 158/80
- C. Four-hour urine output 240 ml
- D. Respirations 12/minute
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'Patellar reflex 4+'. Hyperreflexia is a sign of severe preeclampsia and increases the risk of seizures, indicating the need for immediate intervention. Monitoring and addressing this finding are crucial in managing the client's condition and preventing complications.
5. During the admission procedure of a 6-year-old, the child states, 'I’m going to have an operation.' Which response is best for the nurse to provide to this child?
- A. Are you scared?
- B. We’re going to do everything we can to take very good care of you.
- C. Tell me what an operation is.
- D. I’m glad your mother told you why you were coming to the hospital.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: In this situation, the most appropriate response for the nurse is to provide reassurance and express care to alleviate the child's anxiety about the upcoming operation. By reassuring the child that everything will be done to take very good care of them, the nurse helps build trust and comfort, creating a positive and supportive environment for the child.
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