the lpnlvn is counseling a woman who wants to become pregnant the woman tells the nurse that she has a 36 day menstrual cycle and the first day of her
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Nursing Elites

HESI RN

Maternity HESI Quizlet

1. The LPN/LVN is counseling a woman who wants to become pregnant. The woman tells the nurse that she has a 36-day menstrual cycle and the first day of her last menstrual period was January 8. The nurse calculates that the woman's next fertile period is

Correct answer: C

Rationale: To determine the fertile period, subtract 14 days from the length of the woman's menstrual cycle. In this case, 36-14 = 22. Counting forward from the first day of the last menstrual period (January 8), the fertile period falls around January 30-31. This is because ovulation typically occurs approximately 14 days before the start of the next menstrual period, marking the fertile window for conception.

2. The healthcare provider is preparing to administer phytonadione to a newborn. Which statement made by the parents indicates understanding why the healthcare provider is administering this medication?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'Prevent hemorrhagic disorders.' Phytonadione (vitamin K) is administered to newborns to prevent hemorrhagic disease by promoting blood clotting. Newborns are born with low levels of vitamin K, which is essential for blood clotting, hence the administration to prevent hemorrhagic disorders. Choice B is incorrect because phytonadione is not given to help an immature liver but to supply vitamin K. Choice C is incorrect as phytonadione is not administered to improve dietary intake but to provide essential vitamin K. Choice D is incorrect as phytonadione does not stimulate the immune system but helps with blood clotting.

3. A 6-month-old child who had a cleft-lip repair has elbow restraints in place. What nursing intervention should the nurse plan to implement?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Removing restraints one at a time for range of motion exercises prevents muscle stiffness and allows assessment of the skin.

4. During a routine first-trimester prenatal exam, a pregnant client tells the nurse that she has noticed an increase in vaginal discharge that is white, thin, and watery. Which action should the nurse implement?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The increased vaginal discharge described by the pregnant client, which is white, thin, and watery, is a common physiological change during pregnancy. It is typically normal and attributed to hormonal fluctuations. The nurse should reassure the client that this type of discharge is expected during pregnancy and does not typically indicate an issue requiring medical intervention or treatment.

5. After a client delivered vaginally 2 days ago, what information should you share with her if she wants to resume using her diaphragm for birth control?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: After childbirth, the diaphragm must be refitted to ensure a proper fit and effectiveness. Changes in the body post-delivery can affect the fit of the diaphragm, making it necessary to get refitted. Choice A is incorrect because while the diaphragm can be effective, it is not the most effective form of contraception. Choice C is incorrect because oil-based lubricants like Vaseline can damage latex diaphragms. Choice D is incorrect because the diaphragm should be inserted no more than 2 hours before intercourse, not 2 to 4 hours.

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