a laboring clients membranes rupture spontaneously the nurse notices that the amniotic fluid is greenish brown what intervention should the nurse impl
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Nursing Elites

HESI RN

Maternity HESI Quizlet

1. A laboring client’s membranes rupture spontaneously. The nurse notices that the amniotic fluid is greenish-brown. What intervention should the nurse implement first?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is to assess the fetal heart rate. When amniotic fluid is greenish-brown, it may indicate the presence of meconium, which can be concerning as it may lead to fetal distress. Assessing the fetal heart rate will help determine the well-being of the fetus and guide further actions to ensure the safety of both the mother and the baby.

2. A young woman who underwent a liver transplant one year ago tells the clinic nurse that she would like to start a family. How should the nurse intervene?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Post-liver transplant pregnancy is high-risk due to potential complications associated with immunosuppressive therapy and the transplanted organ's health. Providing information about the risks involved allows the client to make an informed decision regarding family planning.

3. The LPN/LVN caring for a laboring client encourages her to void at least q2h, and records each time the client empties her bladder. What is the primary reason for implementing this nursing intervention?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The primary reason for encouraging the laboring client to void regularly is to prevent an over-distended bladder, which could impede the descent of the fetus, prolong labor, and be at risk for trauma during delivery. Choice A is incorrect because the difficulty in emptying the bladder during delivery is not the main reason for this nursing intervention. Choice C is incorrect as it pertains to obtaining urine specimens for glucose and protein, not the primary reason for encouraging voiding. Choice D is incorrect because although frequent voiding can indeed minimize the need for catheterization, the primary reason is to prevent an over-distended bladder and potential complications.

4. A client at 28 weeks gestation calls the antepartum clinic and reports experiencing a small amount of bright red vaginal bleeding without uterine contractions or abdominal pain. What instruction should the LPN/LVN provide?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Bright red vaginal bleeding without pain could indicate placental issues such as previa. An ultrasound is necessary to evaluate the cause. It is important to rule out potential serious conditions like placental previa, which can lead to further complications for both the mother and the fetus. Therefore, prompt evaluation through an ultrasound at the clinic is essential for appropriate management and ensuring the well-being of the client and her baby.

5. The nurse is caring for a postpartum client who is complaining of severe pain and a feeling of pressure in her perineum. Her fundus is firm, and she has a moderate lochial flow. On inspection, the nurse finds that a perineal hematoma is beginning to form. Which assessment finding should the nurse obtain first?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In a postpartum client with a perineal hematoma, assessing heart rate and blood pressure is crucial as it can help determine the client's circulatory status. A perineal hematoma has the potential to cause significant blood loss leading to hypovolemia. Monitoring vital signs like heart rate and blood pressure can provide immediate information on the client's hemodynamic stability and guide further interventions if needed.

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