HESI RN
HESI Maternity Test Bank
1. A 4-week-old premature infant has been receiving epoetin alfa (Epogen) for the last three weeks. Which assessment finding indicates to the healthcare provider that the drug is effective?
- A. Slowly increasing urinary output over the last week.
- B. Respiratory rate changes from the 40s to the 60s.
- C. Changes in apical heart rate from the 180s to the 140s.
- D. Change in indirect bilirubin from 12 mg/dl to 8 mg/dl.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. Epoetin alfa stimulates erythropoiesis, leading to an increase in red blood cell production and improving oxygen-carrying capacity. As the oxygenation status improves, there is a reduction in heart rate. Therefore, changes in apical heart rate from the 180s to the 140s indicate that the drug is effective. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because they do not directly reflect the expected outcome of epoetin alfa therapy. Increasing urinary output, changes in respiratory rate, and decreasing bilirubin levels are not primary indicators of the drug's effectiveness in this context.
2. The healthcare provider is preparing to give an enema to a laboring client. Which client requires the most caution when carrying out this procedure?
- A. A gravida 6, para 5 who is 38 years of age and in early labor.
- B. A 37-week primigravida who presents at 100% effacement, 3 cm cervical dilation, and a -1 station.
- C. A gravida 2, para 1 who is at 1 cm cervical dilation and a 0 station admitted for induction of labor due to postdates.
- D. A 40-week primigravida who is at 6 cm cervical dilation and the presenting part is not engaged.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The client at 40 weeks of gestation with a 6 cm cervical dilation and a presenting part that is not engaged requires the most caution during an enema procedure. An unengaged presenting part increases the risk of cord prolapse, which can be a serious complication during the procedure. This situation demands careful attention to prevent potential complications and ensure the safety of the client and fetus. Choice A is incorrect as being in early labor does not pose the same level of risk as an unengaged presenting part. Choice B describes a client at 37 weeks with signs of early labor but does not indicate the same level of risk as an unengaged presenting part. Choice C involves a client at 1 cm cervical dilation and a 0 station with no mention of an unengaged presenting part, making it a less critical situation compared to an unengaged presentation, as in Choice D.
3. How can a nurse make a blind 8-year-old girl admitted to the hospital more comfortable?
- A. Bring familiar toys from home, such as a bear or doll.
- B. Explain the surroundings to the child.
- C. Allow the child to explore the room.
- D. Provide audio books and music.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is to bring familiar toys from home, such as a bear or doll. This action provides comfort and a sense of security for the child, as it allows her to have familiar objects around her in an unfamiliar environment, which can help reduce anxiety and stress during her hospital stay.
4. The parents of a 3-year-old boy with Duchenne muscular dystrophy (DMD) ask, 'How can our son have this disease? We are wondering if we should have any more children.' What information should the nurse provide these parents?
- A. This is an inherited X-linked recessive disorder, which primarily affects male children in the family.
- B. The male infant had a viral infection that went unnoticed and untreated, leading to muscle damage.
- C. The lack of the protein dystrophin in the mother can impact the XXX muscle groups of males.
- D. Spinal cord damage due to birth trauma during a breech vaginal birth weakens the muscles.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. Duchenne muscular dystrophy is an X-linked recessive disorder, meaning the gene mutation causing DMD is located on the X chromosome. Males have one X chromosome and one Y chromosome, so if the X chromosome they inherit from their mother carries the mutated gene, they will develop DMD. Females have two X chromosomes, so they are carriers of the gene but are usually not affected by the disease. Therefore, the nurse should explain to the parents that DMD is an inherited X-linked recessive disorder that primarily affects male children in the family.
5. During a prenatal visit, the nurse discusses with a client the effects of smoking on the fetus. When compared with nonsmokers, mothers who smoke during pregnancy tend to produce infants who have
- A. lower Apgar scores.
- B. lower birth weights.
- C. respiratory distress.
- D. a higher rate of congenital anomalies.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Smoking during pregnancy is associated with intrauterine growth restriction, leading to lower birth weights. This occurs due to the harmful effects of smoking on fetal development, which can result in reduced nutrient and oxygen supply to the fetus, impacting its overall growth and leading to lower birth weights. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect as smoking during pregnancy primarily affects fetal growth and development, leading to lower birth weights rather than lower Apgar scores, respiratory distress, or a higher rate of congenital anomalies.
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