HESI RN
Reproductive System Exam Questions
1. The letter 'T' in the Acronym 'GATHER' denotes:
- A. Ask the client about themselves - particular needs, obstetric and medical history
- B. Tell the client about modern FP methods available, and discuss each in detail
- C. Help the client choose a method and repeat information regarding the chosen method if necessary
- D. Explain how to use the method - what, where, when, and how
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'Tell the client about modern FP methods available, and discuss each in detail.' In the GATHER acronym, 'T' stands for providing information about modern family planning methods to the client and having a detailed discussion. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because they do not accurately represent the 'T' component in the GATHER approach. Choice A focuses more on gathering information from the client, choice C is about helping the client choose a method, and choice D is about explaining how to use the method, none of which align with the 'T' in GATHER.
2. Which of the following is not a characteristic of an ideal contraceptive?
- A. Irreversible
- B. Easily available
- C. User-friendly
- D. Effective with least side effects
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'Irreversible.' An ideal contraceptive should not be irreversible because it should allow individuals to have the option to discontinue its use if desired. Choices B, C, and D are characteristics of an ideal contraceptive. Contraceptives should be easily available to ensure widespread accessibility, user-friendly to promote proper and consistent use, and effective with minimal side effects to maximize safety and tolerability.
3. Which of the following is a common presentation in women with polycystic ovarian syndrome?
- A. Oligomenorrhea, obesity, and hirsutism
- B. Amenorrhea, generalized hair loss, and weight gain
- C. Repeated ectopic pregnancies and chronic pelvic pain
- D. Fatigue, body aches, and menorrhagia
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Oligomenorrhea, obesity, and hirsutism. Polycystic ovarian syndrome (PCOS) commonly presents with irregular periods (oligomenorrhea), obesity, and increased hair growth (hirsutism) due to hormonal imbalances. Choice B is incorrect as amenorrhea (absence of periods), generalized hair loss, and weight gain are not typical features of PCOS. Choice C is incorrect as repeated ectopic pregnancies and chronic pelvic pain are not characteristic of PCOS. Choice D is incorrect as fatigue, body aches, and menorrhagia (excessive menstrual bleeding) are not primary symptoms seen in PCOS.
4. Which of the following hormone ratios is MOST likely to be increased in a patient with PCOS?
- A. Progesterone/estrogen
- B. LH/FSH
- C. FSH/LH
- D. Glucagon/insulin
Correct answer: B
Rationale: In patients with Polycystic Ovary Syndrome (PCOS), the LH/FSH ratio is most likely to be increased. This hormonal imbalance is a key characteristic of PCOS, where elevated LH levels relative to FSH contribute to the pathophysiology of the condition. Choice A, progesterone/estrogen ratio, is not typically a defining feature of PCOS. Choice C, FSH/LH ratio, is the reverse of what is commonly observed in PCOS. Choice D, glucagon/insulin ratio, is not directly related to the hormonal imbalances seen in PCOS.
5. What laboratory values are not typically elevated in a patient with PCOS?
- A. LH
- B. Androgens
- C. Estrogens
- D. Prolactin
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Prolactin. Prolactin levels are not typically elevated in patients with PCOS. Elevated LH and androgens are commonly seen in PCOS patients. While estrogen levels can vary in PCOS, they are not consistently low or high in all cases.
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