Nursing Elites

1. The healthcare provider prescribes diagnostic tests for a client with pneumonia identified on a chest X-ray. Which diagnostic test should the nurse review for implementation to guide the most therapeutic treatment of pneumonia?

• A. Sputum culture and sensitivity
• B. Blood cultures
• C. Arterial blood gases (ABG)
• D. Computerized tomography (CT) of the chest

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Sputum culture and sensitivity is the most appropriate diagnostic test for pneumonia as it helps in identifying the causative organism, which is crucial for guiding the selection of the most effective antibiotic therapy. Blood cultures (choice B) are more useful in identifying systemic infections rather than pneumonia specifically. Arterial blood gases (ABG) (choice C) are helpful in assessing oxygenation but do not directly aid in identifying the causative organism. Computerized tomography (CT) of the chest (choice D) is useful for evaluating structural abnormalities in the lungs but is not the initial test of choice for diagnosing pneumonia.

2. The nurse observes an increased number of blood clots in the drainage tubing of a client with continuous bladder irrigation following a transurethral resection of the prostate (TURP). What is the best initial nursing action?

• A. Provide additional oral fluid intake
• B. Measure the client's intake and output
• C. Increase the flow of the bladder irrigation
• D. Administer a PRN dose of an antispasmodic agent

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The best initial nursing action when observing an increased number of blood clots in the drainage tubing of a client with continuous bladder irrigation post-TURP is to increase the flow of the bladder irrigation. This action helps prevent blood clots from obstructing the catheter, ensuring effective drainage and promoting client comfort. Providing additional oral fluid intake (Choice A) is important for overall hydration but may not directly address the issue of blood clots in the drainage tubing. Measuring the client's intake and output (Choice B) is a routine nursing assessment that may not directly address the immediate concern of blood clots obstructing the catheter. Administering a PRN dose of an antispasmodic agent (Choice D) is not the best initial action as it does not directly address the issue of blood clots in the drainage tubing.

3. The healthcare provider notes a blood pressure of 160/90 mm Hg in a patient taking a thiazide diuretic. The patient reports taking an herbal medication that a friend recommended. Which herbal product is likely, given this patient’s blood pressure?

• A. Ginkgo
• B. Hawthorn
• C. Licorice
• D. St. John’s wort

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Ginkgo. Increased blood pressure can result when ginkgo is used in combination with a thiazide diuretic. Option B (Hawthorn) is incorrect because hawthorn is more commonly associated with lowering blood pressure. Option C (Licorice) is incorrect because licorice can lead to sodium and water retention, potentially exacerbating hypertension. Option D (St. John’s wort) is incorrect as it is not typically associated with significant blood pressure effects.

4. A client in the postanesthesia care unit has an as-needed prescription for ondansetron (Zofran). Which of the following occurrences would prompt the nurse to administer this medication to the client?

• A. Paralytic ileus
• B. Incisional pain
• C. Urine retention
• D. Nausea and vomiting

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Nausea and vomiting. Ondansetron is an antiemetic used to manage postoperative nausea and vomiting, as well as nausea and vomiting related to chemotherapy. It is not indicated for treating paralytic ileus, incisional pain, or urine retention. Paralytic ileus is a condition of the gastrointestinal tract characterized by the paralysis of intestinal muscles, which would not be treated with ondansetron. Incisional pain is typically managed with analgesics, not antiemetics. Urine retention is a urinary issue that does not involve nausea and vomiting, making ondansetron an inappropriate choice for this condition.

5. A client with renal insufficiency and a low red blood cell count asks, 'Is my anemia related to the renal insufficiency?' How should the nurse respond?

• A. Red blood cells produce erythropoietin, which increases blood flow to the kidneys.
• B. Your anemia and renal insufficiency are related to inadequate vitamin D and a loss of bone density.
• C. Erythropoietin is usually released from the kidneys and stimulates red blood cell production in the bone marrow.
• D. Kidney insufficiency inhibits active transportation of red blood cells throughout the blood.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. Erythropoietin is produced in the kidney and is released in response to decreased oxygen tension in the renal blood supply. Erythropoietin stimulates red blood cell production in the bone marrow. Anemia in renal insufficiency is often due to decreased erythropoietin production. Anemia and renal insufficiency are not manifestations of vitamin D deficiency as stated in choice B. Choice A is incorrect as erythropoietin does not increase blood flow to the kidneys. Choice D is incorrect because kidney insufficiency does not inhibit active transportation of red blood cells throughout the blood; rather, it affects erythropoietin production and subsequent red blood cell formation.

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