HESI RN
HESI RN Exit Exam 2023
1. A client with a postoperative wound that eviscerated yesterday has an elevated temperature. Which intervention is most important for the nurse to implement?
- A. Initiate contact isolation.
- B. Obtain a wound swab for culture and sensitivity.
- C. Assess temperature every 4 hours.
- D. Use alcohol-based solutions for hand hygiene.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: In this scenario, the most critical intervention is to obtain a wound swab for culture and sensitivity. This will help identify the causative organism present in the wound, enabling healthcare providers to prescribe the appropriate treatment. Initiating contact isolation (Choice A) may be necessary in certain situations but is not the priority in this case where infection is suspected. Assessing the temperature (Choice C) is important for monitoring the client's condition but does not address the underlying cause. Using alcohol-based solutions for hand hygiene (Choice D) is a standard practice for infection control but does not directly address the client's specific condition of a postoperative wound with evisceration and elevated temperature.
2. In determining the client position for insertion of an indwelling urinary catheter, it is most important for the nurse to recognize which client condition?
- A. High urinary pH
- B. Abdominal ascites
- C. Orthopnea
- D. Fever
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Orthopnea. If the client is orthopneic, the nurse needs to adapt the insertion position that does not place the client in a supine position. This means the head of the bed should be elevated as much as possible to facilitate catheter insertion without compromising the client's breathing. High urinary pH (choice A) is not directly relevant to the insertion position of a urinary catheter. Abdominal ascites (choice B) may impact the procedure due to abdominal distension but is not as crucial as orthopnea. Fever (choice D) does not specifically affect the client's position for urinary catheter insertion.
3. A client with diabetes mellitus is admitted with a blood glucose level of 600 mg/dl and is unresponsive. Which laboratory value is most concerning?
- A. Serum potassium of 3.0 mEq/L
- B. Serum glucose of 200 mg/dl
- C. Serum pH of 7.30
- D. Serum sodium of 135 mEq/L
Correct answer: C
Rationale: In a client with Hyperosmolar Hyperglycemic State (HHS), a serum pH of 7.30 is the most concerning value as it indicates acidosis, a life-threatening condition that requires immediate intervention. Choices A, B, and D are not the most concerning in this scenario. A low serum potassium level (Choice A) may be expected due to cellular shift in hyperglycemia, a serum glucose level of 200 mg/dl (Choice B) is not as concerning compared to the extremely high initial glucose level, and a serum sodium level of 135 mEq/L (Choice D) is within the normal range and not the immediate priority.
4. The nurse is caring for a client with chronic kidney disease (CKD) who is receiving erythropoietin therapy. Which laboratory value should be monitored closely?
- A. Serum potassium
- B. Hemoglobin
- C. Serum sodium
- D. White blood cell count
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Serum potassium. When a client with chronic kidney disease is undergoing erythropoietin therapy, monitoring serum potassium levels is crucial. Erythropoietin can stimulate red blood cell production, which may lead to an increase in potassium levels, predisposing the client to hyperkalemia. Monitoring serum potassium levels helps in early detection of hyperkalemia and appropriate intervention. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because although hemoglobin, serum sodium, and white blood cell count are important parameters to monitor in various clinical conditions, they are not specifically associated with erythropoietin therapy in chronic kidney disease.
5. A client with heart failure is receiving digoxin (Lanoxin) and furosemide (Lasix). Which assessment finding requires immediate intervention?
- A. Heart rate of 60 beats per minute
- B. Apical pulse of 58 beats per minute
- C. Presence of a new murmur
- D. Blood pressure of 100/60 mmHg
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. The presence of a new murmur in a client with heart failure receiving digoxin and furosemide is concerning as it may indicate valvular problems or other complications that require immediate intervention. A heart rate of 60 beats per minute and an apical pulse of 58 beats per minute are within normal limits for a client with heart failure on these medications. A blood pressure of 100/60 mmHg, while slightly low, may be expected due to the diuretic effect of furosemide and may not require immediate intervention unless the client is symptomatic.
Similar Questions
Access More Features
HESI RN Basic
$89/ 30 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All HESI courses Coverage
- 30 days access
HESI RN Premium
$149.99/ 90 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All HESI courses Coverage
- 30 days access